Wow - you have me so confused!!! I think maybe you are mixing things up?
The Gospel of Matthew was never in the Hebrew bible. It was written after Jesus by one of Jesus’ followers who’s purpose for writing the book was to tell people who Jesus was and that He was the promised Messiah. The Jews would never have included it in their “bible.” It doesn’t matter if it was written in Aramaic or Greek.
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*In your quote above, are you talking about the translation of the Septuagint? Matthew would not have been written then, to be recorded in the Septuagint only to be left out later! *
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*There were certain books of the OT that were left out around 90AD because the Jews only wanted their “bible” to contain the books that had originally been written in Hebrew. The Christians had already “taken control” of their (Jews) scripture (the Septuagint) and had been using it to support the cause for Jesus so they decided that anything not originally written in Hebrew would not be included in their bible. *
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We are not talking about anything written after Jesus, we are talking about the OT which had been written centuries earlier.
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As stated by somone already, if Paul quoted something in the NT that was supposed to be in the OT and Jerome didn’t have a copy of it, it was because by the time Jerome was translating (400AD), it had been lost. There is also a quote from the NT book of Titus (I think) that references a book of the OT called the Assumption of Moses and we don’t have the original of that and I don’t think Jerome did either. I don’t see a problem…It doesn’t mean the book or the bible is corrupt. We trust that what Paul says and teaches is inspired by God and if there is a point to quoting a portion of another work we don’t have a copy of , we trust the lesson he’s trying to teach.
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I’m so confused by your posts, maybe I’m way off base and out in left field somewhere, so if what I say doesn’t make sense, just ignore it!
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