Was John the Baptists's Baptisms efficacious?

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Having reviewed the CCC on the Sacraments of Baptism, Confirmation, and Eucharist … [the 1200’s & 1300’s paragraphs] … it is clear that ALL are needed.

For example, while Baptism is our initiation into the faith and fellowship with Christ, Confirmation is ESSENTIAL to further one along in the faith, their SEALING, and FULL receipt of H.S. Its a continuum process … so says the CCC.

Finally, w/o weekly receipt of Eucharist, which follows the first two sacraments, our chance of persevering unto salvation is severely handicapped / fraught with failure. This is why Christ could say, “Unless you Eat my Flesh & Drink my Blood … you have no life in you”…

Look how many baptized Catholics never received Confirmation, and never show to receive Christ in the Eucharist.
 
That contradicts John 3:5 as well as our understanding of Confirmation and infused grace through baptism. The laying on of hands does not complete a water-only baptism. Even if they received the Holy Spirit directly without water baptism as Cornelius did, they would still have to be water baptized, which they were not according to textual evidence, and would make no sense since they were baptizing others without being baptized themselves? This even goes against another statement you made earlier saying that they probably baptized each other. The baptism must be with water and the Spirit. How can they only receive the Holy Spirit in John 20 if they already received His authority for their ministry in the Synoptics to cast out demons, etc? How can John 20 be their baptism if they aren’'t “baptized” in the Spirit until Pentecost? Is this a case of two spiritual baptisms with no water? How can John 20 be their baptism if there’s no water with the Spirit? This is irrelevant anyway because Jesus had not ascended yet to the Father, which is when the Spirit was to have been sent, yes? So by the natural extension of your logic, Jesus should not have been able to do that because he had not ascended yet to present his sacrifice, as shown in the Epistle of Hebrews. Your viewpoint seems to be shifting slightly, but creating new contradictions.
Nathan, I’ve been on many threads, but I don’t recall saying the Apostles baptizing each other. Can you show me where I said that, because I don’t recall ever believing that.

How can John 20 be their Baptism? Because Jesus (and the Holy Spirit) is not bound by the structure He sets up for the Church. That would explain the Thief on the Cross. And that would explain Cornelius. John 20 is my hypothesis that, “If the Apostles were baptized, it would have been in John 20”. But my contention is that the Apostles were not water baptized. It was not necessary, for they received the Holy Spirit without Baptism.
Any grace after the Fall was by the cross. It extends throughout time. If there can be people in the OT that pleased God (and we can agree that there were, i.e David, Noah, Jeremiah, David, etc), how is this possible, except by the cross? If not by the cross, then obviously they could be justified before God without it, which is blasphemous. The cross was not merely to rescue those in prison, it was to make man right with God, and if it was not the grace of the Cross that accomplished this, even in the OT, then what was it? How can God be spoken of to have shown “Divine Forbearance” unless he saw the saw the Sacrifice of the cross (per Revelation) eternally even in the past?
What did I say that denied that it was through the Grace of the Cross that they were freed from prison. Jesus preached the Gospel to them and some accepted and some rejected. My hypothesis, because we don’t know exactly what happened. But we do know that Jesus opened the gates of heaven during this time, and those in the OT were not graced into heaven until this time.
So how can they be initiated into his priesthood before being initiated into his body, Notworthy? Doesn’t it make sense to have been really inititiated into his body in a baptism that looks forward, so they can take part in the priesthood that looks forward? Something to think about. It’s also an institution of the Sacrament of the Eucharist, not merely the charism of priesthood, so it doesn’t cancel my point.Your position, although understandable, doesn’t make sense.
But you agree with me (and the Church) that the Last Supper looks forward to Calgary, just as the Eucharist today looks backwards to Calgary. Again, I don’t see the hangup in what I wrote.

There was a priesthood. There were no Masses said until after the Pentecost, from what we’ve understood. When were they initiated into the priesthood? At the Last Supper. The washing of the Feet confirms this.
At the end of the day, and I can’t stress this enough, temporal and eternal timelines are being confused. Grace is outside of time. The crucifixion itself is a temporal event, but the grace is not, so confining it to a temporal timeline as well is a fallacy. The difference between John’s baptism and Jesus’ baptism, having both been in the past, is that Jesus’ baptism was instituted, and so tied directly to the cross outside of time. John’s baptism merely pointed the way. God Bless.
I don’t have any argument against this. Are you trying to convince me of something here.
 
N.W. … please don’t confuse the OPERATIVE WORD [efficacious] in your Thread with SACRAMENTAL !!!

As I earlier pointed out to you — in another thread, back in 2007, you stated the Baptism of John was not SACRAMENTAL. I have NOT ARGUED that point … as it isn’t our topic here. Rather, I’ve spoken to your posed thread question : Was it Efficacious ?

WHICH IT WAS ---- so stated Christ, in his questions to the Chief Priests … and likewise, many of ECF’s have pointed up the spiritual inception/graces/benefits/desirability/efficacy of John’s Baptism. 😛
Well, yeah, then I am confused. By calling a Baptism “Efficacious”, I assumed you meant “it confirms the Sacrament of Baptism” upon the recipient. I thought you conjectured that, upon Jesus’ death, those that were baptized were baptized into his death.

Sorry if I was confused.
 
Yes. The baptism administered in Jesus’ name in the Gospel of John was Sacramental. This is my contention.
OK, Nathan, it all boils down to this.

Where in John’s Gospel was anyone baptized in Jesus’ name? And by saying “in Jesus’ name”, do you mean “in the name of Jesus” or do you mean “In the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit”? We don’t see that formula until Jesus Ascension, never before. And we see no baptisms "in the name of Jesus (where He alone or Trinitarian) in John’s Gospel.

Now, my contention is “Baptism” is the normative means of gaining salvation, am I right? But God is not bound by this. You yourself said the Grace of the Cross allowed OT people to go to heaven, even though they weren’t baptized. The Apostles, in my opinion, were not baptized "in the name of Jesus (or Trinitarian), for I see nowhere that this claim is made or even hinted at.
 
OK, Nathan, it all boils down to this.

Where in John’s Gospel was anyone baptized in Jesus’ name? And by saying “in Jesus’ name”, do you mean “in the name of Jesus” or do you mean “In the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit”? We don’t see that formula until Jesus Ascension, never before. And we see no baptisms "in the name of Jesus (where He alone or Trinitarian) in John’s Gospel.

Now, my contention is “Baptism” is the normative means of gaining salvation, am I right? But God is not bound by this. You yourself said the Grace of the Cross allowed OT people to go to heaven, even though they weren’t baptized. The Apostles, in my opinion, were not baptized "in the name of Jesus (or Trinitarian), for I see nowhere that this claim is made or even hinted at.
The words aren’t there, Notworthy. However this is similar to the “Trinity Argument.” Whether Jesus baptized or not, the disciples were, or they would be contradicting all that we know about the Catholic faith, as well as Jesus’ own words. So they were either giving John’s Baptism, or Jesus’ baptism. If it was Jesus’ sacramental baptism, we can infer that it was Trinitarian in the words. If it was not Sacramental and was really simply John’s baptism, then we cannot make that inference.

OT saints could go to heaven from the grace of the cross because there was no Sacrament of baptism instituted yet. After it’s instituted at the Jordan, and Jesus gives the pivotal John 3:5 quote, how can you honestly believe the apostles were not baptized by water and the Spirit? Jesus’ baptism had water and Spirit present, as an institution. Regardless of the baptisms by John prior to this, after that point, a baptism in Jesus’ name would be Sacramental. Are you really suggesting that the apostles didn’t have to listen to the words in John 3:5? I have to be honest, that the natural course of your line of argumentation is mystifying to me, particularly when Patristic quotes and the Catholic understanding of the neccessity of the Sacraments is contrary to your viewpoint.

The question isn’t whether the apostles were baptized with water and the Spirit, Notworthy (whether they baptized each other, or Peter by Jesus). The question is when, and if it was Sacramental. If you are arguing that they were not baptized with water and the spirit at all, then all I can do is say that you are seriously mistaken, and refer you repeatedly to John 3:5 and the Church teaching regarding the necessity of baptism excluding baptism of blood and desire. You would have to show a passage saying that Jesus said “water and the Spirit, except for you guys.”
 
The words aren’t there, Notworthy. However this is similar to the “Trinity Argument.” Whether Jesus baptized or not, the disciples were, or they would be contradicting all that we know about the Catholic faith, as well as Jesus’ own words. So they were either giving John’s Baptism, or Jesus’ baptism. If it was Jesus’ sacramental baptism, we can infer that it was Trinitarian in the words. If it was not Sacramental and was really simply John’s baptism, then we cannot make that inference.
I agree with this statement completely. However, Jesus promised to send the Holy Spirit only after His departure. The Holy Spirit is instrumental in Sacramental Baptisms. Therefore, I am reasoning that the baptisms of the Apostles during this time was purely the Baptism of Repentance that John was doing.

As best as we can tell, they were not instructed in the normative means of Baptism until right before Jesus’ Ascension.
OT saints could go to heaven from the grace of the cross because there was no Sacrament of baptism instituted yet. After it’s instituted at the Jordan, and Jesus gives the pivotal John 3:5 quote, how can you honestly believe the apostles were not baptized by water and the Spirit?
Where was it “instituted at the Jordan”. I always thought it was instituted at Jesus’ Ascension. It was “pre-figured” at the Jordan, in my opinion.
Jesus’ baptism had water and Spirit present, as an institution. Regardless of the baptisms by John prior to this, after that point, a baptism in Jesus’ name would be Sacramental. Are you really suggesting that the apostles didn’t have to listen to the words in John 3:5? I have to be honest, that the natural course of your line of argumentation is mystifying to me, particularly when Patristic quotes and the Catholic understanding of the neccessity of the Sacraments is contrary to your viewpoint.
You’ll have to re-enlighten me on this Patristic quotes. I don’t agree that Baptism is necessary. I agree that it is the way Jesus established, but Jesus is not constrained by these strictures. Take the thief. Jesus didn’t baptize him. The Church later on, caused it a “Baptism of Desire”, but that was only in acting in response to Jesus’ actions. God can do what he wants. The Church, for instance, doesn’t claim that Gandi is in hell because he was never baptized, does She? If the Church taught that Baptism was necessary, then the Church could claim that Gandi is in hell.
The question isn’t whether the apostles were baptized with water and the Spirit, Notworthy (whether they baptized each other, or Peter by Jesus). The question is when, and if it was Sacramental. If you are arguing that they were not baptized with water and the spirit at all, then all I can do is say that you are seriously mistaken, and refer you repeatedly to John 3:5 and the Church teaching regarding the necessity of baptism excluding baptism of blood and desire.
And again, “Baptisms of Blood and of desire” are the Church’s reaction to Jesus’ actions. Jesus didn’t heed His very own command in John 3:5 for the thief.

But here’s another thought. Why couldn’t the Apostles have baptized themselves at Pentecost… you know, to show all the others how it is done. That I can accept with no qualms, for the Holy Spirit had been given. But not Sacramental Baptisms at the River Jordan… unless you can show me that the Church teaches exactly that.
 
I agree with this statement completely. However, Jesus promised to send the Holy Spirit only after His departure. The Holy Spirit is instrumental in Sacramental Baptisms. Therefore, I am reasoning that the baptisms of the Apostles during this time was purely the Baptism of Repentance that John was doing.
Jesus promised to send the Holy Spirit after his departure. Now here’s the key. He gave the Holy Spirit to his disciples several times prior to his ascension. So he has to be referring to Pentecost. This is not the same manifestation and so cannot apply.

If you are correct, and Jesus was giving a baptism of repentance but not a Sacramental baptism, then the apostles would have had to be re-baptized in “water and the Spirit,” since it was John’s baptism they were baptized with. We have no textual evidence this occurred, however, and many reason not to infer this.
As best as we can tell, they were not instructed in the normative means of Baptism until right before Jesus’ Ascension.
This is true from the text itself, which is why the crucial point is whether they were giving the same baptism as John, covered above. However, we must also be cautious about implying that simply because it was stated here, that it was never stated prior. I am not making a positive or negative case on this one point, but merely stating we should be catious.
Where was it “instituted at the Jordan”. I always thought it was instituted at Jesus’ Ascension. It was “pre-figured” at the Jordan, in my opinion.
This is entirely possible, which was the original point of my posts on the thread before we veered a bit. I am merely stating my case on this particular aspect.
You’ll have to re-enlighten me on this Patristic quotes. I don’t agree that Baptism is necessary. I agree that it is the way Jesus established, but Jesus is not constrained by these strictures. Take the thief. Jesus didn’t baptize him. The Church later on, caused it a “Baptism of Desire”, but that was only in acting in response to Jesus’ actions. God can do what he wants. The Church, for instance, doesn’t claim that Gandi is in hell because he was never baptized, does She? If the Church taught that Baptism was necessary, then the Church could claim that Gandi is in hell.
Baptism of blood and desire are martyrdom specifically for the name of Christ, or dying before being able to be water baptized. Yes, as you stated, these are the actions of Christ outside of His Sacraments. Which means that his apostles had to use the normal means, or they were hypocrites right up until the moment nearly all (but not all) were martyred, baptizing other people (but not themselves) with water and the Spirit? It doesn’t work that way.
But here’s another thought. Why couldn’t the Apostles have baptized themselves at Pentecost… you know, to show all the others how it is done. That I can accept with no qualms, for the Holy Spirit had been given. But not Sacramental Baptisms at the River Jordan… unless you can show me that the Church teaches exactly that.
This is entirely possible, however, your qualms are based on reasoning I hope I have shown is faulty. The Holy Spirit could not come until Jesus’ Ascension. Yet he gives the Holy Spirit on multiple occasions prior to His Ascension to the apostles for their ministry. Logic dictates that Jesus must be speaking of a different manifestation, which is Pentecost. This is why we can say that Confimation is rooted in Pentecost, apart from Baptism. By your logic, We could get confirmed and never be water baptized, because we had already “received the Spirit.” However, even the gentiles that received the Spirit as a sign still had to be water baptized. Why? Salvation. The Holy Spirit can make a donkey talk, that doesn’t mean it’s saved.
 
You have not CONVINCINGLY proven Jesus ever personally performed WATER baptisms. He may of … but, scripture [St. John the beloved of Christ] actually teaches he DID NOT ‘WATER’ BAPTIZE, … rather, his Apostles did !!!

Nevertheless, NO ONE but Christ can confer the Holy Spirit upon those water baptized by pastors/priests/laymen. So, Christ is intricately involved in EVERY water baptism, having instructed his ministers/deacons/etc. to perform the rite, …which He blesses with his H.S. & and makes Sacramental.
? I’m not sure you have been paying attention to anything I written. Nor did I state I had proven anything. I will respond when you catch up and make a more pointed case.
 
👍 Good observations / conclusions … N.W.

We never find elsewhere in scripture [or Catholic Tradition] that all those Baptized by John needed RE-BAPTISMS … with the sole exception of Apollos & Friends, who had a truncated Baptism [w/o mention of Christ, only with mention of it being for repentance for sins]. This is why it took Paul by surprize, and he had to think it thru, and figure out what had gone wrong for these UNUSUAL 12 believers.
This is an interesting point, however, I would point out a couple things. First, we don’t know how many of John’s followers actually followed Jesus. It appears that his ministry was parallel with Jesus,and that he even had his own doubts about Jesus’ identity. The disciples of John’s that we do know, however, that decided to follow Jesus had to be re-baptized, and so all we can do is read the rest of Scripture in that light.
 
I’m enjoying the thread, everyone!

A couple of other thoughts from Augustine:

“I ask, therefore, if sins were remitted by the baptism of John, what more could the baptism of Christ confer on those whom the Apostle Paul desired to be baptized with the baptism of Christ after they had received the baptism of John? But if sins were not remitted by the baptism of John, were those men in the days of Cyprian better than John, of whom he says himself that they ‘used to seize on estates by treacherous frauds, and increase their gains by accumulated usuries,’ through whose, administration of baptism the remission of sins was yet conferred? Or was it because they were contained within the unity of the Church? What then? Was John not contained within that unity, the friend of the Bridegroom, the preparer of the way of the Lord, the baptizer of the Lord Himself? Who will be mad enough to assert this? Wherefore, although my belief is that John so baptized with the water of repentance for the remission of sins, that those who were baptized by him received the expectation of the remission of their sins, the actual remission taking place in the baptism of the Lord,— just as the resurrection which is expected at the last day is fulfilled in hope in us, as the apostle says, that ‘He has raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus’ (Ephesians 2:6); and again, ‘For we are saved by hope’ (Romans 8:24); or as again John himself, while he says, ‘I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance, for the remission of your sins’ (Matthew 3:11), yet says, on seeing our Lord, ‘Behold the Lamb of God, which takes away the sin of the world’ (John 1:29) — nevertheless I am not disposed to contend vehemently against any one who maintains that sins were remitted even in the baptism of John, but that some fuller sanctification was conferred by the baptism of Christ on those whom Paul ordered to be baptized anew (cf. Acts 19:3-5)” (, Bk. 5, Ch. 10On Baptism, Against the Donatists).

“[T]here is the circumstance, which is not incredibly reported, that the thief who then believed as he hung by the side of the crucified Lord was sprinkled, as in a most sacred baptism, with the water which issued from the wound of the Saviour’s side. I say nothing of the fact that nobody can prove, since none of us knows, that he had not been baptized previous to his condemnation. However, let every man take this in the sense he may prefer; only let no rule about baptism affecting the Saviour’s own precept be taken from this example of the thief… what if he had been baptized in prison, as in after times some under persecution were enabled privately to obtain? Or what if he had been baptized previous to his imprisonment? If, indeed, he had been, the remission of his sins which he would have received in that case from God would not have protected him from the sentence of public law, so far as appertained to the death of the body. What if, being already baptized, he had committed the crime and incurred the punishment of robbery and lawlessness, but yet received, by virtue of repentance added to his baptism, forgiveness of the sins which, though baptized, he had committed? For beyond doubt his faith and piety appeared to the Lord clearly in his heart, as they do to us in his words. If, indeed, we were to conclude that all those who have quitted life without a record of their baptism died unbaptized, we should calumniate the very apostles themselves; for we are ignorant when they were, any of them, baptized, except the Apostle Paul (cf. Acts 9:18). If, however, we could regard as an evidence that they were really baptized the circumstance of the Lord’s saying to St. Peter, ‘He that is washed needs not save to wash his feet’ (John 13:10), what are we to think of the others, of whom we do not read even so much as this—Barnabas, Timothy, Titus, Silas, Philemon, the very evangelists Mark and Luke, and innumerable others, about whose baptism God forbid that we should entertain any doubt, although we read no record of it?” (On the Soul and its Origin, Bk. 1, Ch. 11 & Bk. 3, Ch. 12)

In Christ,
Pete
 
Jesus promised to send the Holy Spirit after his departure. Now here’s the key. He gave the Holy Spirit to his disciples several times prior to his ascension. So he has to be referring to Pentecost. This is not the same manifestation and so cannot apply.
Yes, in John 20. Where else?
If you are correct, and Jesus was giving a baptism of repentance but not a Sacramental baptism, then the apostles would have had to be re-baptized in “water and the Spirit,” since it was John’s baptism they were baptized with. We have no textual evidence this occurred, however, and many reason not to infer this.
No, we have no evidence either that they were baptized “in the name of Jesus” and many reasons not to infer this. It was never instructed to them.
This is entirely possible, however, your qualms are based on reasoning I hope I have shown is faulty. The Holy Spirit could not come until Jesus’ Ascension. Yet he gives the Holy Spirit on multiple occasions prior to His Ascension to the apostles for their ministry. Logic dictates that Jesus must be speaking of a different manifestation, which is Pentecost. This is why we can say that Confimation is rooted in Pentecost, apart from Baptism. By your logic, We could get confirmed and never be water baptized, because we had already “received the Spirit.” However, even the gentiles that received the Spirit as a sign still had to be water baptized. Why? Salvation. The Holy Spirit can make a donkey talk, that doesn’t mean it’s saved.
No, my logic is not faulty.

There are two Sacraments given at Pentecost. Confirmation (to the Apostles) and Baptism to the 3000. You’ve shown that the Holy Spirit can confirm Cornelius before Baptism. There is no reason He couldn’t have confirmed the Twelve (take that Inkaneer!!! ;)) before they baptized each other, because they didn’t know about the Trinitarian Formula until Christ’ ascension.

Every Catholic Manuscript I’ve seen indicates that Christ gave the Apostles the instructions on how to baptize in Matthew 28… never hinting that he did it earlier.
 
I’m enjoying the thread, everyone!

A couple of other thoughts from Augustine:
“I ask, therefore, if sins were remitted by the baptism of John, what more could the baptism of Christ confer on those whom the Apostle Paul desired to be baptized with the baptism of Christ after they had received the baptism of John? But if sins were not remitted by the baptism of John, were those men in the days of Cyprian better than John, of whom he says himself that they ‘used to seize on estates by treacherous frauds, and increase their gains by accumulated usuries,’ through whose, administration of baptism the remission of sins was yet conferred? Or was it because they were contained within the unity of the Church? What then? Was John not contained within that unity, the friend of the Bridegroom, the preparer of the way of the Lord, the baptizer of the Lord Himself? Who will be mad enough to assert this? Wherefore, although my belief is that John so baptized with the water of repentance for the remission of sins, that those who were baptized by him received the expectation of the remission of their sins, the actual remission taking place in the baptism of the Lord,— just as the resurrection which is expected at the last day is fulfilled in hope in us, as the apostle says, that ‘He has raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus’ (Ephesians 2:6); and again, ‘For we are saved by hope’ (Romans 8:24); or as again John himself, while he says, ‘I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance, for the remission of your sins’ (Matthew 3:11),
I’m confused by this point St. Augustine is saying. When I read Matthew 3:11, it says, "11 I am baptizing you with water, for repentance, but the one who is coming after me is mightier than I. I am not worthy to carry his sandals. He will baptize you with the holy Spirit and fire. "

Where does John say that his baptism is “for the remission of sins”. The Church certainly doesn’t teach that today.
 
Yes, in John 20. Where else?
By what power did they do miracles and cast out demons when they were sent out during Christ’s ministry? Jesus had not ascended anyway yet to present his Sacrifice to the father, so it doesn’t matter if it happened in John 20 or not. My original point still stands. The Spirit had not come yet. My contention is your definition of Spirit. Was it the Pentecostal form? Or some other form.
No, we have no evidence either that they were baptized “in the name of Jesus” and many reasons not to infer this. It was never instructed to them.
Yes we do, otherwise it was the baptism of John. Period. They weren’t rebaptized, so they must have been baptized in Jesus’ name. Either we infer that Jesus taught them an ineffective formula, or that he taught them a Trinitarian formula from the beginning. The allusion is already there in John 3:5, so yes, we do have many reasons to infer this.
There are two Sacraments given at Pentecost. Confirmation (to the Apostles) and Baptism to the 3000. You’ve shown that the Holy Spirit can confirm Cornelius before Baptism. There is no reason He couldn’t have confirmed the Twelve (take that Inkaneer!!! ;)) before they baptized each other, because they didn’t know about the Trinitarian Formula until Christ’ ascension.
Interesting point, except that they knew the Trinitarian formula at any rate prior to Pentecost, so I’m not sure why you would assume they waited around so long, based off the instance of Cornelius that hadn’t happened yet? The Holy Spirit came down on Cornelius, but that doesn’t mean he was saved. He had to be baptized. That’s why he was. That’s why John 3:5 was written. I’m not sure why you won’t let this one go.
Every Catholic Manuscript I’ve seen indicates that Christ gave the Apostles the instructions on how to baptize in Matthew 28… never hinting that he did it earlier.
I have attempted to show the reasons to infer that Jesus baptized. I have even given a couple scholars such as Dodd and Meier to show that it is not coming out of the blue. I have attempted to show that the text allows it. I have give Patristic witness. If you don’t agree that’s fine, it’s not defined, but you can’t say I haven’t at least made a solid case. 🙂
 
[/INDENT] I’m confused by this point St. Augustine is saying. When I read Matthew 3:11, it says, "11 I am baptizing you with water, for repentance, but the one who is coming after me is mightier than I. I am not worthy to carry his sandals. He will baptize you with the holy Spirit and fire. "

Where does John say that his baptism is “for the remission of sins”. The Church certainly doesn’t teach that today.
It could possibly be a manuscript variant? Many of the early fathers quote variant manuscripts of John 3:5, for instance, stating “he must be born again of water and the spirit” instead of “he must be born of water and the Spirit.”
 
John 20 is my hypothesis that, “If the Apostles were baptized, it would have been in John 20”. But my contention is that the Apostles were not water baptized. It was not necessary, for they received the Holy Spirit without Baptism.
What ? Are you stating that you don’t believe the 12 of Christ EVER received WATER Baptism … either from John or from Christ ? If I’m stating your position correctly … show us some ECF support for your ideas.

John 20 speaks to their CONFIRMATIONS, sealing by Christ with H.S.
 
It could possibly be a manuscript variant? Many of the early fathers quote variant manuscripts of John 3:5, for instance, stating “he must be born again of water and the spirit” instead of “he must be born of water and the Spirit.”
But, St. Augustine basis this paragraph on a variant. He uses incorrect Scripture to promote his point.
 
Oh… and PS from the Council of Trent:

“If any one saith, that the baptism of John had the same force as the baptism of Christ; let him be anathema.”
No one here is making claim that John’s Baptism was Sacramental. Some here are saying it was VERY Efficacious for those receiving in faith with repentant hearts. And, that it allowed Christ to bring Grace to those receiving.

It was ‘very similiar’ to what Peter tells us our water washing in baptism today does. It was an ‘appeal’ to God by those receiving to have their sins REMOVED. Which Christ completed … and made efficacious for them via Calvary.

Did it confer the H.S. on them ? It appears not. At least in case of Apollos & Friends, who were not Baptised into Name of Christ … it did not. So, we can know that their baptisms were not SACRAMENTAL. Nevertheless, their baptisms HAD proven EFFICACIOUS for them !!!
 
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