Was Judas Iscariot a Bishop?

[Thrstypirate]

I have a question. When did the term bishop start? Are they called Bishops in Acts?

 

[BornInMarch]

The only way that would be possible is if he returned and Jesus forgave him before the other apostles in the period between when Jesus rose from the dead and when he ascended to Heaven.

 

[Bithynian]

I have a question. When did the term bishop start? Are they called Bishops in Acts?

Yes. The earliest use of the word bishop (Gk: ἐπίσκοπος ͅepiskopos) is in Acts 20:28: “the Holy Spirit has made you bishops to shepherd the Church of God”.

 

[Angel_Bradford]

Not intentionally.

 

[Gorgias]

Jesus himself, after the resurrection, would have forgiven Judas just as he forgave Peter and Thomas.

If he presented himself for forgiveness, you mean. The OP’s conjecture is merely that he runs away instead of hanging himself.

I still need a quote when he himself actually did what he could do with Christ’s authority. Because Judas also received the Eucharist and then he berayed Christ.

I still need a quote that he received the Eucharist.

Then again, there’s nothing to suggest that he didn’t do what Jesus commanded, when He sent them out on mission.

That’s exactly what he did. Matthias took over Judas’ ministry. “And his bishopric let another take.“ Judas’ office as Apostle was vacant; Matthias filled it.

We had this discussion in another thread. The references are to “the Eleven”. Even after Matthias’ election. Matthias is an example of apostolic succession. And your quote? That’s KJV, not a Catholic translation.

Judas’s death, or his treason and thus default Excommunication

There was no Church from which to be excommunicated.

Not intentionally.

So… they unintentionally are called episkopoi in Scripture?

(But yeah, I get what I think you’re trying to say: ‘bishop’, as a title, shows up later, although ‘episkopos’ shows up from the beginning…)

 

[Cathoholic]

PeriliousKnight (via the thread title) . . .

Was Judas Iscariot a Bishop?

Yes he is.

He has an episcopal or bishops share in Jesus’ one Priesthood. (He was changed “ontologically” - or Judas’ very being changed permanently towards a deeper share of Jesus than he had before he was made a bishop - this made Judas’ betrayal all the more grave by the way).

Judas had an episcopal office or a “bishoprick”.

I almost never quote from the King James Version but here I will as it lends itself nicely to your excellent question.

The context is Judas Iscariot here . . .

ACTS 1:20 (KJV) 20 For it is written in the book of Psalms, Let his habitation be desolate, and let no man dwell therein: and his bishoprick let another take.

Also the DRV

ACTS 1:20 (DRV) 20 For it is written in the book of Psalms: Let their habitation become desolate, and let there be none to dwell therein. And his bishopric let another take.

Here is the RSVCE using the word “office” (the Greek word is episcopoi [episcopen] as in “episcopal office” which merely means “bishops office”).

ACTS 1:20 (RSVCE) 20 For it is written in the book of Psalms, ‘Let his habitation become desolate, and let there be no one to live in it’; and ‘His office let another take.’

Hope this helps.

God bless.

Cathoholic

 

[poche]

Jesus forgave Peter for denying him. He would have forgiven Judas for having betrayed him if he had asked.

 

[tafan2]

Yes he is.

I disagree. I thought the traditional thought of when the apostles became bishops was after the resurrection, John 20:19-23.

 

[tafan2]

Yes, they did, but not as bishops. He sent out 70, not just the 12.

 

[Godfollower]

While Jesus was on earth the twelve disciples didn’t heal or cast out demons it was a thing Jesus did.

That’s incorrect. Read Mark 6 and Luke 10. Jesus sent out the Twelve and then the 72, and they healed the sick and cast out demons. Yes, it was entirely based on Jesus’ authority, but they did it in His name.

 

[Godfollower]

And your quote? That’s KJV, not a Catholic translation.

Actually, that’s from the Douay-Rheims, an acknowledged Church-approved translation.

 

[Gorgias]

Gorgias:

And your quote? That’s KJV, not a Catholic translation.

Actually, that’s from the Douay-Rheims, an acknowledged Church-approved translation.

It’s an interesting anachronism, don’t you think?

The term “bishop” didn’t appear until it hit the English language, at which point the office of “bishop” – as distinct from the notion of ‘apostle’ – had already been long established. And yet, the translation – not only in Acts, but in Psalm 109! – is “bishoprick” and not “overseership” or “office”. Hmm… do you think that Peter was thinking of Christian bishops, prior to Pentecost? Do you think that King David was?

(And of course, if not, then the idea that they were literally talking about ‘bishops’ – such that we would call Judas a ‘bishop’ – is wholly an anachronistic notion.)

 

[Godfollower]

The term “bishop” didn’t appear until it hit the English language, at which point the office of “bishop” – as distinct from the notion of ‘apostle’ – had already been long established. And yet, the translation – not only in Acts, but in Psalm 109! – is “bishoprick” and not “overseership” or “office”. Hmm… do you think that Peter was thinking of Christian bishops, prior to Pentecost? Do you think that King David was?

The Biblical texts refer to two types of leaders in the early Church: elders (presbyters) and overseers (episkopus).

The Ancient Greek “episkopus” used in the New Testament original works became the Latin “episcopus,” which became the Old English “bisceop,” which became the modern “bishop.”

So, no: it’s not true that the term didn’t appear until later; it’s just that English didn’t appear until later.

But bishops were around from the beginning.

 

[OrbisNonSufficit]

I think Bible states about Judas

‘Let someone else take over his office,’
And word “office” is often translated as Bishopric. If Matthias indeed was a Bishop (which he was), Judas was also one. I could be wrong but that is my understanding.

 

[Gorgias]

But bishops were around from the beginning.

Right. So, then, when David wrote “episkopos”, he meant “Christian bishop”, so that, when Peter quoted “episkopos”, that’s what he meant, too. Umm…

It’s an anachronism. Just be honest about it. What later came to become the office of ‘bishop’ wasn’t such in the time of King David, nor yet when Peter quoted Psalms.

 

[dochawk]

If Matthias indeed was a Bishop (which he was), Judas was also one.

perhaps “would have become”.

You have a sequence of

betrayal
suicide
resurrection
Pentecost
Matthias

If “bishopness” starts from Pentecost, then Judas would not be a bishop, while his successor brought in afterwards would.

 

[EndTimes]

I guess this is one of those alternate history questions.

Let’s assume everything up to the crucifixion takes place as it does in real life. However, instead of hanging himself, Judas simply runs away. Since he is technically an apostle, would he be a valid Bishop and would bishops created by him be valid?

Since this is a rather arcane What If? which didn’t occur, it doesn’t serve any useful purpose…

 

[poche]

It is almost impossible to talk about the apostles without talking about Jesus.

 

[OrbisNonSufficit]

If “bishopness” starts from Pentecost, then Judas would not be a bishop, while his successor brought in afterwards would.

Yeah that makes more sense, you are right. Thank you for correction.

 

[RaisedCatholic]

No, because in the NT, apostles are a different office from the elder-bishop (overseer) office. So, while Judas was an apostle, he wasn’t an elder-bishop.