Water baptism cannot make you right with God

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Remember when they were immersed in water?
They were immersed in water by the Apostles - they were baptised in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, as Christ commanded in Matthew 28:16-20.
Paul was preaching to a gentile church. Water baptism was a ritual of the Jews.
No, it wasn’t. The initiation rite of Judaism is circumcision.

Christ commands us to be baptised with water into the Holy Spirit. (John 3:5)
 
Christ commands us to be baptised with water into the Holy Spirit. (John 3:5)
**I don’t understand why you continue to hold this opinion of John 3:5?

Let me help clarify the context of it . . .

3:4
Nicodemus *said to Him, “How can a man be born when he is old ? He cannot enter a second time into his mother’s womb and be born, can he?”

3:5
Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

To be ‘born of water’ was an idiom. What Jesus is saying is that we have a physical body that was born first. We are ‘born again’ when Christ comes alive in us spiritaully. The context of this passage has nothing to do with water baptism.

Can you see that?**
 
The initiation rite of Judaism is circumcision.
**
in the first century, if you were a gentile and wanted to become a proselyte jew, you would have had to preforming three rituals.
  1. circumcision
    2 water baptism
  2. offering two turtle doves
All of which, Paul declared null in Col. 2:14.
**
 
They were immersed in water by the Apostles - they were baptised in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, as Christ commanded in Matthew 28:16-20.
**‘immersed in water’ is not in this citation.

Therefore, could it be Jesus is talking about a baptism other than dipping in water?

Mat 28:16 But the eleven disciples proceeded to Galilee, to the mountain which Jesus had designated. 17 When they saw Him, they worshiped Him; but some were doubtful. 18 And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, "All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. 19 “Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit, 20 teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age.”
**
 
**
If baptism by Holy Spirit is valid, then what would be an example of an invalid baptism?

Water.**
Then Peter had people invalidly baptized?

Acts 10,47-48:

Then Peter said, “Can anyone withhold the water for baptizing these people who have received the Holy Spirit?” So he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ.
 
**
in the first century, if you were a gentile and wanted to become a proselyte jew, you would have had to preforming three rituals.
  1. circumcision
    2 water baptism
  2. offering two turtle doves
All of which, Paul declared null in Col. 2:14.
**
Then why in verse 12 is he telling them to remember their Christian baptism, that they have been buried with Christ in baptism? :confused:

Christian Baptism is described in the Didache, which is the Catechism of the Twelve Apostles.
Chapter 7. Concerning Baptism
  1. And concerning baptism, thus baptize ye: Having first said all these things, baptize into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, Matthew 28:19 in living water. 2. But if you have not living water, baptize into other water; and if you can not in cold, in warm. 3. But if you have not either, pour out water thrice upon the head into the name of Father and Son and Holy Spirit. 4. But before the baptism let the baptizer fast, and the baptized, and whatever others can; but you shall order the baptized to fast one or two days before.
Question for you: if your interpretation is correct, why did it take until 1975 for anyone to figure that out? If St. Paul really meant that “water baptism” was now no longer to be used, then why did he keep on using it, and insisting on it as being absolutely essential, and teach his successors to baptize new Christians?
 
tabcom: when Jesus told the disciples to go preach the gospel to all nations and Baptize them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit: what do you think he was telling the disciples to do?
 
**‘immersed in water’ is not in this citation. **

Yes it is. To baptise is to immerse or cover in water.
Therefore, could it be Jesus is talking about a baptism other than dipping in water?
The Bible wasn’t written in English. The word “baptise” means “immerse/cover in water.”
 
To be ‘born of water’ was an idiom. What Jesus is saying is that we have a physical body that was born first.
So, Jesus was telling Nicodemus that he has to be born physically, first? (Was Nicodemus not yet born physically, do you think?) 🤷
 
They baptized entire household in Acts and part of the members of some of those households were infants.

The infants didn’t have to profess fith and yes the Baptisms were valid and yes they did wash away all temporal punishment due ot original sin.

So yes Water Baptism did make those infants right with God!

The infants faith ws not required. What was required was the faith of their parents.

After the age of reason those infants would be held accountable for profesing or not professing their own personal faith in Jesus.

Everyone is lost before they are found. We are born of original sin. We are baptized as infants or some of us are baptized after the age of reason.

Some are baptized before they profess their faith in Jesus and some are baptized after they profess their faith in Jesus but all are born again by Water and the Spirit.

The sequence does not matter.
Catholics are truely born again!
Excellent JJ:thumbsup:

Infant Baptism: The infant can do nothing, nor does the infant need to do anything, in order to be “saved”. The church freely supplies all that’s necessary, including the water, the faith, and the grace, while the infant truly becomes a temple of the Holy Spirit, an adopted child of God, a member of the Church, and co-heir with Jesus Christ … simply because God desires all to be saved.
The Catholic sacrament of Confirmation later allows each person to make the declaration of faith that was made for them at baptism. Baptism is really salvation without works ! :yup:
 
**
If baptism by Holy Spirit is valid, then what would be an example of an invalid baptism?

Water.**
The water is not separate from the HS in the rite of baptism. What makes it valid is whether or not one does it as Jesus commanded.
The ritual of dipping in water has been done away (Col. 2:14).

Col 2:14
14 having canceled the bond which stood against us with its legal demands; this he set aside, nailing it to the cross.

I don’t know what “bond” you thought existed at the time, but Jesus instituted his own baptism that did not exist before, just like He instituted a number of other teachings.
tabcom;2438107:
John The Baptist also stated that water baptism is over . . .

Mr 1:8 -
“I baptized you with water; but He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit.”

Mt 3:11 -
"As for me, I baptize you with water for repentance, but He who is coming after me is mightier than I, and I am not fit to remove His sandals; He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire.

pneumati - spirit
puri - fire

Pneuma and Pur had an exact meaning to a Hellenized culture. It dates several hundred years earlier and started with Zeno, the founder of the Stoics.

Pneuma and Pur, in the simplist terms, ment life.
John preceeded the pouring out of the HS, that is why he could only offer a batism of water for repentance. After Jesus entered the waters of baptism, he sanctified them, so that the Spirit could be released through them.

There is no separation between water baptism ,and the regeneration of the soul by the HS.
Also, what type of baptism is Jesus talking about in Mr 10:38?

Mr 10:38 -
But Jesus said to them, “You do not know what you are asking. Are you able to drink the cup that I drink, or to be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized?”
Mr 10:39 -
They said to Him, “We are able.” And Jesus said to them, "The cup that I drink you shall drink; and you shall be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized Being dipped in water?

Jesus did not need a baptism of repentance, because he was already without sin. He was speaking of their martyrdom, which was accomplished during the first persecution.
 
:hmmm:**
If you would be so kind as to be more specific as to where in Acts you are referring to AND show that water baptism was preformed, **

Acts 8:34-40

34 And the eunuch said to Philip, “About whom, pray, does the prophet say this, about himself or about some one else?” 35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and beginning with this scripture he told him the good news of Jesus. 36 And as they went along the road they came to some water, and the eunuch said, “See, here is water! What is to prevent my being baptized?” 38 And he commanded the chariot to stop, and they both went down into the water, Philip and the eunuch, and he baptized him. 39 And when they came up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord caught up Philip; and the eunuch saw him no more, and went on his way rejoicing. 4

Was Philip so lost on the teachings of Christ so quickly, that he was still doing water baptism after it had been discontinued? 🤷

Rom 6:4
4 We were buried therefore with him by baptism into death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, we too might walk in newness of life.

How does baptism in the HS “bury” someone? It is a reference to going under the water.
tabcom;2438213:
I’d like to discuss this point further.
Although there are some references in the NT to support infant baptism, the bulk of the support that it was customary comes from the writings of the early fathers.
You are not going to find that doctrine in the bible.
John 3:4-5
5 Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.

Water baptism, during which the believer is sealed by the promised holy spirit, is the normative means by which someone is brought into the body of Christ.
 
Then Peter had people invalidly baptized?

Acts 10,47-48:

Then Peter said, “Can anyone withhold the water for baptizing these people who have received the Holy Spirit?” So he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ.
**Peter did not invalidly baptize, because he did not dip the people at the House of Cornelius in water.

To understand the context of these verses, you must read all of Chapter 10 and Chapter 11:1-18. The Jews had a strick oral tradition regarding how a gentile can be proselytized into their religion.

Peter was a Jew. It was unlawful for a Jew to even talk to a Gentile. When God instructed Peter to enter the house of Cornelius (a gentile), Peter was breaking with his tradition as a Jew.

What Peter is saying in Acts 10:47 is that the Jewish tradition of performing the ritual of water baptism on a gentile does not preclude them from receiving the Holy Spriit.

When Peter returned to Jerusalem and told the apostles of his experience at the house of Cornelius, he told them in Acts 11:15- 17:

15 "And as I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell upon (those at the House of Cornelius) just as He did upon us at the beginning. 16 "And I remembered the word of the Lord, how He used to say, `John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’ 17 “Therefore if God gave to them the same gift as He gave to us also after believing in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could stand in God’s way?”

In other words, what Peter is saying is that the baptism of the Holy Spirit is far greater than the ritual of water baptism.**
 
The original greek word for ‘handwriting of ordinances’ is the word dogma.
So, do you think Christianity should have no “dogma”?

Paul had all the believers to whom he preached baptized. there were so many that he did not usually baptize them himself, but focused on preaching and teaching, and let others do the baptizing. Unfortunately, factions began to emerge about who was baptized by whom, because it was understood that water baptism was a rite of inclusion.
Why would Paul put the yoke of water baptism on a gentile church when the Jews included it as one of their rituals and God turned away from them?
Paul did not place a yoke on anyone. Baptism is a glorious gift of freedom and celebration. It is commanded by Christ, and therefore, is easy, and fits well. That is the way Jesus’ yoke is!
IMHO, Christian baptism is the Holy Spirit
No one here disagrees with that. We just recognize that it involves the use of water. If Jesus had no use for baptism, why did he submit to it Himself? Why didn’t He tell John, “ok, you can stop now, I am here”.? Why did he teach his Apostles to baptize?🤷
 
:tsktsk:

**The water being referred to is the water from a mothers womb. **
If it were, Nicodemus would not be confused, because he already knew that he had been born of his mother’s womb once already. Yet, he understood “water” to be for the present, so he said “go back to my mother’s womb?” What you have been taught about this passage is not consistent with the NT teachings, or the practices of the early church.

Irenaeus was much closer to the Apostolic teaching than we are, yet he understood that water baptism was for everyone (including infants).

“For He came to save all through means of Himself all, I say, who through Him are born again to God, infants, and children, and boys, and youths, and old men” (Against Heresies 2:22:4).

“‘And [Naaman] dipped himself . . . seven times in the Jordan’ [2 Kgs. 5:14]. It was not for nothing that Naaman of old, when suffering from leprosy, was purified upon his being baptized, but [this served] as an indication to us. For as we are lepers in sin, we are made clean, by means of the sacred water and the invocation of the Lord, from our old transgressions, being spiritually regenerated as newborn babes, even as the Lord has declared: ‘Except a man be born again through water and the Spirit, he shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven’ [John 3:5]” (Irenaeus Fragment 34 [A.D. 190]).

Hippolytus (170-236 AD)

“And first baptize the little ones; and if they can speak for themselves, they shall do so; if not, their parents or other relatives shall speak for them.” (The Apostolic Tradition 21:16 [A.D. 215]).

Origen

“The Church has received from the apostles the custom of administering baptism even to infants. For those who have been entrusted with the secrets of divine mysteries, knew very well that all are tainted with the stain of original sin, which must be washed off by water and spirit” (Commentary on Romans, 5.9).

“Every soul that is born into flesh is soiled by the filth of wickedness and sin. . . . In the Church, baptism is given for the remission of sins, and, according to the usage of the Church, baptism is given even to infants. If there were nothing in infants which required the remission of sins and nothing in them pertinent to forgiveness, the grace of baptism would seem superfluous” (Homilies on Leviticus 8:3 [A.D. 248]).
 
Then why in verse 12 is he telling them to remember their Christian baptism, that they have been buried with Christ in baptism? :confused:
**
What you are suggesting doesn’t even make sense.

Col 2:12 - having been buried with Him in baptism, in which you were also raised up with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead.

How can you be buried with Christ by being dipped in water?
No, there is another type of baptism going on here.**
Question for you:. . . If St. Paul really meant that “water baptism” was now no longer to be used, then why did he keep on using it, and insisting on it as being absolutely essential, and teach his successors to baptize new Christians?
If you would be so kind as to point to a verse that explicitly states that Paul performed a water baptism, I will respond accordingly.
 
**I don’t understand why you continue to hold this opinion of John 3:5?

Let me help clarify the context of it . . .

3:4
Nicodemus *said to Him, “How can a man be born when he is old ? He cannot enter a second time into his mother’s womb and be born, can he?”

3:5
Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

To be ‘born of water’ was an idiom. What Jesus is saying is that we have a physical body that was born first. We are ‘born again’ when Christ comes alive in us spiritaully. The context of this passage has nothing to do with water baptism.

Can you see that?**
I can see where you came up with it. I can also see that this is not the teaching we recieved from the Apostles.

Hermas

“‘I have heard, sir,’ said I [to the Shepherd], ‘from some teacher, that there is no other repentance except that which took place when we went down into the water and obtained the remission of our former sins.’ He said to me, ‘You have heard rightly, for so it is’” (The Shepherd 4:3:1–2 [A.D. 80]).

Justin Martyr

“As many as are persuaded and believe that what we [Christians] teach and say is true, and undertake to be able to live accordingly . . . are brought by us where there is water, and are regenerated in the same manner in which we were ourselves regenerated. For, in the name of God, the Father and Lord of the universe, and of our Savior Jesus Christ, and of the Holy Spirit, they then receive the washing with water. For Christ also said, ‘Except you be born again, you shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven’ [John 3:3]” (First Apology 61 [A.D. 151]).

Tertullian

“Happy is our sacrament of water, in that, by washing away the sins of our early blindness, we are set free and admitted into eternal life. . . . [But] a viper of the [Gnostic] Cainite heresy, lately conversant in this quarter, has carried away a great number with her most venomous doctrine, making it her first aim to destroy baptism—which is quite in accordance with nature, for vipers and asps . . . themselves generally do live in arid and waterless places. But we, little fishes after the example of our [Great] Fish, Jesus Christ, are born in water, nor have we safety in any other way than by permanently abiding in water. So that most monstrous creature, who had no right to teach even sound doctrine, knew full well how to kill the little fishes—by taking them away from the water!” (Baptism 1 [A.D. 203]).

“Without baptism, salvation is attainable by none” (ibid., 12).

“We have, indeed, a second [baptismal] font which is one with the former [water baptism]: namely, that of blood, of which the Lord says: ‘I am to be baptized with a baptism’ [Luke 12:50], when he had already been baptized. He had come through water and blood, as John wrote [1 John 5:6], so that he might be baptized with water and glorified with blood. . . . This is the baptism which replaces that of the fountain, when it has not been received, and restores it when it has been lost” (ibid., 16).

Hippolytus

“[P]erhaps someone will ask, ‘What does it conduce unto piety to be baptized?’ In the first place, that you may do what has seemed good to God; in the next place, being born again by water unto God so that you change your first birth, which was from concupiscence, and are able to attain salvation, which would otherwise be impossible. For thus the [prophet] has sworn to us: ‘Amen, I say to you, unless you are born again with living water, into the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, you shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.’ Therefore, fly to the water, for this alone can extinguish the fire. He who will not come to the water still carries around with him the spirit of insanity for the sake of which he will not come to the living water for his own salvation” (Homilies 11:26 [A.D. 217]).
 
**‘immersed in water’ is not in this citation.

Therefore, could it be Jesus is talking about a baptism other than dipping in water?

Mat 28:16 But the eleven disciples proceeded to Galilee, to the mountain which Jesus had designated. 17 When they saw Him, they worshiped Him; but some were doubtful. 18 And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, "All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. 19 “Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit, 20 teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age.”
**
After the HS was given, it became clear that the manifestation of the HS accompanied water baptism. Or, if the manifestation of the Spirit was seen (as at the house of Cornelius) water baptism was done immediately.

Acts 10:47-48
47 “Can any one forbid water for baptizing these people who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?” 48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to remain for some days.

Peter commanded water baptism for those upon whom the Spirit fell. Why did he do this, if Christ told him to not? Do you think he just didn’t get it ? 🤷

John 4:1-3
4:1 Now when the Lord knew that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus was making and baptizing more disciples than John 2(although Jesus himself did not baptize, but only his disciples),

What kind of baptism do you think is being referred to here, if not water? 🤷
 
The Bible wasn’t written in English. The word “baptise” means “immerse/cover in water.”
**To firmly hold to the belief that baptise means to immerse/cover in water exclusively, would be in err.

The Hebrew Bible was written in Hebrew.
The Christian Bible was written in Greek.

baptise - from the greek word Baptizo (bap-tid’-zo)
  1. to dip repeatedly, to immerse, to submerge (of vessels sunk)
  2. to cleanse by dipping or submerging, to wash, to make clean with water, to wash one’s self, bathe
  3. to overwhelm
Not to be confused with 911, bapto. The clearest example that shows the meaning of baptizo is a text from the Greek poet and physician Nicander, who lived about 200 B.C. It is a recipe for making pickles and is helpful because it uses both words. Nicander says that in order to make a pickle, the vegetable should first be ‘dipped’ (bapto) into boiling water and then ‘baptised’ (baptizo) in the vinegar solution. Both verbs concern the immersing of vegetables in a solution. But the first is temporary. The second, the act of baptising the vegetable, produces a permanent change. When used in the New Testament, this word more often refers to our union and identification with Christ than to our water baptism. e.g. Mark 16:16. ‘He that believes and is baptised shall be saved’. Christ is saying that mere intellectual assent is not enough. There must be a union with him, a real change, like the vegetable to the pickle! Bible Study Magazine, James Montgomery Boice, May 1989.

From the The New Testament Greek Lexicon:
searchgodsword.org/lex/grk/view.cgi?number=907**
 
ummm…
So if I were to be baptized in the name of satan, the demons, and the anti-christ, and be immersed in blood, God should accept this baptism?
 
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