G
guanophore
Guest
Certainly the baptism of Christ, which is that done by water and Spirit, is far greater than the baptism of John, which was only unto repentance, as the HS had not yet been given. It is true that the Jewish rite for proselites was not followed with the house of Cornelius. But you have not explained why Peter said “can anyone refuse water?” and "he commanded them to be baptized’.**Peter did not invalidly baptize, because he did not dip the people at the House of Cornelius in water.
To understand the context of these verses, you must read all of Chapter 10 and Chapter 11:1-18. The Jews had a strick oral tradition regarding how a gentile can be proselytized into their religion.
Peter was a Jew. It was unlawful for a Jew to even talk to a Gentile. When God instructed Peter to enter the house of Cornelius (a gentile), Peter was breaking with his tradition as a Jew.
What Peter is saying in Acts 10:47 is that the Jewish tradition of performing the ritual of water baptism on a gentile does not preclude them from receiving the Holy Spriit.**
When Peter returned to Jerusalem and told the apostles of his experience at the house of Cornelius, he told them in Acts 11:15- 17:
15 "And as I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell upon (those at the House of Cornelius) just as He did upon us at the beginning. 16 "And I remembered the word of the Lord, how He used to say, `John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’ 17 “Therefore if God gave to them the same gift as He gave to us also after believing in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could stand in God’s way?”
In other words, what Peter is saying is that the baptism of the Holy Spirit is far greater than the ritual of water baptism.
Now, why would the subject of water even come up? Why would Peter consider refusing it to them? Why would he command them to be water baptized, when he had just seen with his own eyes that the Spirit had already baptized them?
Yes, it is sacramental baptism, instituted by Christ, where the believer is dipped in water, and is filled with the HS.**
What you are suggesting doesn’t even make sense.**
Metaphorically, burial in baptism (going under the water) corresponds to “dying with Christ”.
Col 2:12 - having been buried with Him in baptism, in which you were also raised up with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead.
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Better yet, how can you be “buried with Christ” when the spirit falls? How was any of the people in the house of Cornelius “buried” when the Spirit fell upon them?How can you be buried with Christ by being dipped in water?
If you would be so kind as to point to a verse that explicitly states that Paul performed a water baptism, I will respond accordingly.No, there is another type of baptism going on here.
1 Cor 1:12-18
11 For it has been reported to me by Chlo’e’s people that there is quarreling among you, my brethren. 12 What I mean is that each one of you says, “I belong to Paul,” or “I belong to Apol’los,” or “I belong to Cephas,” or “I belong to Christ.” 13 Is Christ divided? Was Paul crucified for you? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul? 14 I am thankful that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Ga’ius; 15 lest any one should say that you were baptized in my name. 16(I did baptize also the household of Steph’anas. Beyond that, I do not know whether I baptized any one else.)
The believers understood that baptism is what gave them belonging in the body of Christ. They were just small minded, and became factious about it.