B
bfree1216
Guest
Ok so follow my thought process here and let me know where I go wrong.
Jesus is like us in every way but sin (I can’t remember if this is a Bible verse or a doctrine of the Church). So we can imply that sin is a defining characteristic of man.
In this way, we have to sin, no? I mean, not at all times, by any means, but at one point or another, we have to sin? (“For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God” (Rom. 3:23). And this refers to personal sin—an act of free will—not original sin, am I wrong?).
But this would be pre-determinism. But by definition, sin is an act of free will. But if sin is a result of free will, how would we have to sin? What am I missing, or how do these ideas work together?
(P.S. I’ve been posting on CAF a lot lately because I realized lately I’ve had all these unanswered questions about the faith. You all have been so, so helpful. Thank you for all your insight!)
Jesus is like us in every way but sin (I can’t remember if this is a Bible verse or a doctrine of the Church). So we can imply that sin is a defining characteristic of man.
In this way, we have to sin, no? I mean, not at all times, by any means, but at one point or another, we have to sin? (“For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God” (Rom. 3:23). And this refers to personal sin—an act of free will—not original sin, am I wrong?).
But this would be pre-determinism. But by definition, sin is an act of free will. But if sin is a result of free will, how would we have to sin? What am I missing, or how do these ideas work together?
(P.S. I’ve been posting on CAF a lot lately because I realized lately I’ve had all these unanswered questions about the faith. You all have been so, so helpful. Thank you for all your insight!)
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