P
paidion
Guest
I appreciate your response… however, I believe the passages referring to the “breaking of bread” have to do with the believers sharing a meal together rather than partaking of the L-rd’s Supper. — I’ve heard that one could not really share a meal unless they had bread. (hmmmm… there’s food for thought)Paidon,
from my limited knowledge, when we bless a man or a marriage or a house or water etc, we ask for God to be present and from a Catholic point of view a Catholic priest is the one that does the blessing. I bow to your knowledge if it was a different understanding at the time we are speaking of.
I’m sorry i don’t know the answers to your questions about when blessings may have changed.
Verses showing use of breaking of bread in NT :
Acts 3:46 “Every day they devoted themselves to meeting together in the temple area and to breaking bread in their homes. They ate their meals with exultation and sincerity of heart”. New Catholic Translation. (what else)
1 Corinthians 10:16-18
“The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ? For we being many are one bread, and one body: for we are all partakers of that one bread. Behold Israel after the flesh: are not they which eat of the sacrifices partakers of the altar ?”
Acts 2:42
“And they continued stedfastly in the apostles’ doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread …”
1 Corinthians 11:26-30
“For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord’s death till he come. Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup. For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord’s body. For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep.”
Regarding the passage from I Corinthians 11, while that does refer to the L-rd’s Supper, it doesn’t refer to how often it should be done. Since the L-rd’s Supper was from the Passover seder, wouldn’t it make sense that the observance would also be at that time? And since Passover was an everlasting ordinance to be observed once a year, wouldn’t it follow that the L-rd’s Supper would also be once a year? The phrase “for as often as you eat this bread…” doesn’t necessarily say that one must do it often. Rather the implication is that WHEN one does it, it should be done appropriately.
Please understand I’m not trying to bash RC doctrine (or anyone’s doctrine for that matter). I’m just trying to figure out why there’s such a jump from the Jewish custom of observing Passover and what appears to be the institution of a whole new set of practices. Why would there be a need to make such a leap? (Especially in light of Messiah’s words that He came to fulfill the Law and not to abolish it.)