Wammy101:
GO SHARKY! WHOOP GO!
I think part of the problem here is that we, as a society, receive next to no training in how to properly evaluate moral decisions / acts. That seems to be the case with several posters on this thread. Therefore…
Quick lesson:
In order for an act to be “morally good”, all three of the following things must be present:
- **The act itself **- this is an **objective **determination based on an “absolute” evaluation of the act as an end unto itself
- The intent - this is a **subjective **determination of the desires of those engaging in the act
- The circumstances - this is a **relative **determination that may vary based on time / location / society
The error of modernity is to deny that (1) is even part of the moral question, and to absolutize (2) (subjectivism) or (3) (relativism). This is a very flawed line of thinking that can be more fully explained on another thread - this quick statement, however, suffices to permit continued discourse on a common ground.
Application #1:
Since we’re talking about sex, let’s use sex as an example. It is a morally good act to have sexual relations with your spouse, objectively speaking. It propogates the species, unites the couple emotionally / spiritually, and serves an objectively good end in and of itself. However, if you have sexual relations with your spouse and your intent is wrong (i.e., spousal rape or imagining you’re having sex with someone else, etc.), the act becomes immoral. Likewise, if you have sexual relations with your wife and your intent is rightly-ordered, but you do so in the wrong circumstance (i.e., in public, when it’s medically dangerous for her, etc.) the act again becomes immoral. The act is objectively good, but can become bad through the subjective or relative elements.
Application #2:
Now, if a person is sufficiently confused, they can be “in love with” their dog. It can (and does) happen (I can find mental health journal citations, if required). Because of this, the intent element is fulfilled - it is subjectively good. This person then wants to have sex with their dog in the privacy of their own home - it is therefore good in a relative way (because of the right relative circumstances). Is this then a morally “good” act? Nope. The act itself, objectively speaking, is immoral. It is not a good in and of itself, and therefore this act can never be considered moral.
Please don’t mistake what I’m saying - I’m not saying that homosexuals have sex with dogs or anything of the sort. What I
am saying is that certain acts, no matter how good the intent or how appropriate the circumstances, can never be moral.
Examples of objectively wrong acts:
-Deliberately killing innocent human persons (see: abortion)
-Sloth, Greed, Pride, Envy, Gluttony, Wrath and Lust
-Intentionally inflicting pain on innocent human persons
-Cowardice
These acts can never be considered “morally good” (i.e., a good in and of themselves) - they can only be justified as a “lesser evil”. Don’t believe me? Try and justify it as an end in and of itself.
Would it then be “forcing our religion” on people to tell them that an act is
objectively wrong, or for us to prohibit/condemn an objectively wrong act? I don’t believe so, as the right/wrong question in the present discussion isn’t a “religious” question at all - it’s a question about human nature, which is an argument that should appeal to secular humanists. Take the very anti-religious Dr. Sigmund Freud, for example:
“. . . it is a characteristic common to all the perversions that in them reproduction as an aim is put aside. This is actually the criterion by which we judge whether a sexual activity is perverse - if it departs from reproduction in its aims and pursues the attainment of gratification independently . . . Everything that . . . serves the pursuit of gratification alone is called by the unhonored title of ‘perversion’ and as such is despised.” - Sigmund Freud, A General Introduction to Psycho-Analysis, trans. By Joan Riviere (New York, NY: Liverwright, 1935), p. 277.
Dr. Freud believed this to be the case, despite not being “religious”. Why?
Would we be “forcing our religion” on Dr. Freud if we agreed with him? Of course not.
For those who would hail homosexuality as at worst a morally neutral act, I would ask the following:
- Why would the sex-with-a-dog example above be immoral (or would it be)?
- Why is NAMBLA completely morally out-to-lunch (or are they)? They stress that consent by both members has to be present…why should we shun their organization (or should we)?
God Bless,
RyanL