I
inJESUS
Guest
“I ascend unto MY FATHER, and YOUR FATHER; and to MY GOD, and YOUR GOD” -John 20:17
Can God be God of another God?
“I ascend unto MY FATHER, and YOUR FATHER; and to MY GOD, and YOUR GOD” -John 20:17
Can God be God of another God?
Quran is not at all equal to God in anyway. It is far less than Allah.
are you sure
ok let’s see :
if the Quran is the word of Allah:
is it created or uncreated?
is it eternal or not?
is it divine or not?
Mainstream islam teaches the quran is the eternal, divine, uncreated word of allah. Unless you belong to another sect.
In what way, the greatness of Jesus (pbuh) was equal to the greatness of God?
are you sure![]()
I notice you don’t add the last lines of this, so I will:If there is anyone believing in Bible,-
Jesus (pbuh) himself taught about his **‘Holy Sonship’ **of God.
John 10:33 The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.”
(Jesus (pbhu) was supposed to accept that accusation if he indeed was God. Check below what he answered)
34 Jesus answered them, "Has it not been written in your Law, 'I SAID, YOU ARE GODS’?
(Check below who were those ‘Gods’)
35 "**If he **(The very Father GOD) called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken),
(It was people like Moses and David (pbuh). God himself called those messengers GOD in the scriptures jews believed. But the never recognised them (Neither the Christians do) as GODS or members of Trinity. It was a Jewish custom to refer people of divine purpose (messengers), God and Son of God. Jesus (pbuh) knew it very well and so he quoted Jewish law and those ‘GODS’. Those men were sent with divine purpose and Jews never found blasphemy in their claim of being ‘Son of God’ or ‘GOD’. If that claim of being Son of God or God didn’t make them real GOD or one in trinity, if that claim never was a blasphemy for Jews, how can the claim of Jesus (pbuh) that he is Son of God can make him GOD? How can it make him one in trinity? How can it be blasphemy? Jesus (pbuh) asking exactly them same question in the next verse. Check below)
36 do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?
If Jesus (pbuh) didn’t recognize himself different from other Sons of God and Gods that mentioned in previous scriptures, how can we?!!!
I highlighted the important part for you. In other words, the first part of this altercation with the jews is a challenge by Jesus. Jesus does not deny what he claims, but that they are going to stone him for it. He then goes on to reaffirm what he claims (the highlighted quote).37If I am not doing my Father’s work, there is no need to believe me;
38but if I am doing it, then even if you refuse to believe in me, at least believe in the work I do;** then you will know for certain that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.**
39They again wanted to arrest him then, but he eluded their clutches.
Does having the Father in oneself and being a part of the Father mean that one is God?I notice you don’t add the last lines of this, so I will:
I highlighted the important part for you. In other words, the first part of this altercation with the jews is a challenge by Jesus. Jesus does not deny what he claims, but that they are going to stone him for it. He then goes on to reaffirm what he claims (the highlighted quote).
Yes. Jesus is claiming he shares God’s divine nature. Do you think it means something different.Does having the Father in oneself and being a part of the Father mean that one is God?
To be honest with you, I don’t know what it means. However, I don’t think that your conclusion is the only one possible.Yes. Jesus is claiming he shares God’s divine nature. Do you think it means something different.
so the word of Allah is eternal. But only Allah is eternal.The book is not eternal. The content message is from an eternal being. It too has to be eternal.
because you always forget that Jesus being only God was an early heresy refuted by the church. Jesus is both divine and human; as a man he was not equal to the father but Jesus as the Word Incarnate is equal to the Father in nature and does exactly what the Father does because they are one.And you say Jesus (pbuh) is the word of God. Why Jesus (pbuh) said, “for my Father is greater than I” -Jn 14:28, if he equally great as father is?
if you utter thsi sentence in these days is not like a Jew uttering it 2000 years ago. It is not a matter of a sentence; many statements by Jesus were never said by any previous prophet no matter his importance. Not even Moses dared say that he is more important that the temple as Jesus said for example.No prophet dared say he is the Lord of the Sabbath as Jesus said. No prophet said he gives peace the world cannot give; no prophet promised his followers to be with them till the end of days; no prophet dared say he is the alpha and omega and no prophet dared say no one knows the Father except him; no prophet dared say that he is knowcking at your door waiting for you to open so that he enters; a hundred other sentence uttered by Jesus could simply not be uttered by an ordinary human being, especially the ones that are a parallele of what God in the OT says about Himself; let alone a Jewish rabbi 2000 years ago without being the worse blasphemer ever. So no, it’s not this sentence or that sentence; it’s his life, words, deeds, proof, promises, and prophecies that were and are and will be experienced as He said.Does having the Father in oneself and being a part of the Father mean that one is God?
Agreed. However, the perception of those hearing these words and the reality of these words can be (could have been) two different things.if you utter thsi sentence in these days is not like a Jew uttering it 2000 years ago. It is not a matter of a sentence; many statements by Jesus were never said by any previous prophet no matter his importance. Not even Moses dared say that he is more important that the temple as Jesus said for example.No prophet dared say he is the Lord of the Sabbath as Jesus said. No prophet said he gives peace the world cannot give; no prophet promised his followers to be with them till the end of days; no prophet dared say he is the alpha and omega and no prophet dared say no one knows the Father except him; no prophet dared say that he is knowcking at your door waiting for you to open so that he enters; a hundred other sentence uttered by Jesus could simply not be uttered by an ordinary human being, especially the ones that are a parallele of what God in the OT says about Himself; let alone a Jewish rabbi 2000 years ago without being the worse blasphemer ever. So no, it’s not this sentence or that sentence; it’s his life, words, deeds, proof, promises, and prophecies that were and are and will be experienced as He said.
that’s if Jesus were not a Jew 2000 years ago, let alone a rabbi who knows pretty well what words meant to a Jewish audiance including the Pharisee.Agreed. However, the perception of those hearing these words and the reality of these words can be (could have been) two different things.
Thankfully we don’t base our belief that Jesus is the Son of God, and the 2nd person of the Holy Trinity, on a single line from scripture. This is the problem with discussions like this. One person will cling to one line in scripture to prove a point, then disregard every other passage dealing with the same issue.To be honest with you, I don’t know what it means. However, I don’t think that your conclusion is the only one possible.
For instance, God is the creator of everything. By deduction, everything that exists is of God, from God and part of God. In this context, “I am in the Father and the Father is in me” makes sense (a panentheistic view).
also
Jesus says he is doing the work of the Father and to believe the miracles. Jesus does not say “know for certain that I AM the Father and the Father IS me”? In fact, in John 10:31 Jesus says “I have shown you many great miracles FROM the Father”.
In light of this, I see Khalfan’s point. It appears that Jesus is identifying with a certain phrase in scripture, not with GOD himself. It may be that seen this way, Jesus is a “god” (consistent with the scripture he highlighted) because he does the work of the Father. Siince the work is God’s, Jesus is therefore in the Father and the Father in him. Now that I think about it, wasn’t Jesus’ mission to reveal the Kingdom of God (as the Gospel of Luke says, it is here on earth)?
You are exactly right.Thankfully we don’t base our belief that Jesus is the Son of God, and the 2nd person of the Holy Trinity, on a single line from scripture. This is the problem with discussions like this. One person will cling to one line in scripture to prove a point, then disregard every other passage dealing with the same issue.
That being said, name one other prophet that ever made the same claim, “I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me.” No other prophet dared to make this claim because the Jews knew exactly what it meant.
The words are a way of expression of mind. Whatever God spoke was the expression of his mind. Words are not a diety at all, but the source, the mind of God is. Since the words came from mind, the expression must have existed there for always, specially when it is the mind of God as he is the only one who knows everything from always.so the word of Allah is eternal. But only Allah is eternal.
Conclusion:
1- we have 2 eternal deities
or:
2- Allah and His word are the same One deity.
Since you believe in one Allah, then Allah and His word are One Allah. The Word of Allah is not Allah but it is not different from Allah because it is eternal and uncreated like allah.
When Jesus (pbuh) was speaking or working, who was speaking or working, God in him or Man in him?because you always forget that Jesus being only God was an early heresy refuted by the church. Jesus is both divine and human; as a man he was not equal to the father but Jesus as the Word Incarnate is equal to the Father in nature and does exactly what the Father does because they are one.
We don’t believe Jesus (pbuh) came to this world for no reason. We believe he came exactly for the same reason that all prophets (pbut) came before and after him.Jesus did not come to this world without a father for no reason as Muhammad told you. God does nothing without a reason.
If you have taken that oneness literally, you are supposed to take this oneness too in literal meaning.I notice you don’t add the last lines of this, so I will:
37If I am not doing my Father’s work, there is no need to believe me;
38but if I am doing it, then even if you refuse to believe in me, at least believe in the work I do; then you will know for certain that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.
39They again wanted to arrest him then, but he eluded their clutches.
I highlighted the important part for you. In other words, the first part of this altercation with the jews is a challenge by Jesus. Jesus does not deny what he claims, but that they are going to stone him for it. He then goes on to reaffirm what he claims (the highlighted quote).
Not exactly. But we are united in Christ through the sacrament of Holy Communion. And after death we are united with God in Heaven. This does not mean we share God’s divine nature as Jesus does. At least that is how I understand it.If you have taken that oneness literally, you are supposed to take this oneness too in literal meaning.
At John 17:20-23 “that they may all be one just as as You Father are in Me and I in You.”
Are you God as Jesus (pbuh) is according to your belief?
If you are interested to know, how Jesus (pbuh) was one in God, Check this.
is this an answer to my quotation?![]()
You interpret the oneness situationally and according to requirment, right? You don’t know what is it exactly.Not exactly. But we are united in Christ through the sacrament of Holy Communion. And after death we are united with God in Heaven. This does not mean we share God’s divine nature as Jesus does. At least that is how I understand it.
Not according to requirement, according to meaning.You interpret the oneness situationally and according to requirment, right? You don’t know what is it exactly.
The words are a way of expression of mind. Whatever God spoke was the expression of his mind. Words are not a diety at all, but the source, the mind of God is. Since the words came from mind, the expression must have existed there for always, specially when it is the mind of God
as he is the only one who knows everything from always. which proves my point that the mind of God existed with God forever; in other words, the Mind of God is eternal. And we both agree that the Mind of God is not God but is not different than God; or is it different?
When Jesus (pbuh) was speaking or working, who was speaking or working, God in him or Man in him?