What is the origin of the Mass? Is it explained in Scripture?

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“Then he took a loaf of bread, and when he had given thanks, he broke it and gave it to them, saying, `THIS is my body, which is given for you. Do this in remembrance of me.”

I believe Jesus.
Jesus also said, "John 2:19 - "Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.” Do you believe that He meant the actual building temple?
 
He was referring to the temple of his body; and of course he accomplished what he said. At the last supper Jesus took the bread, blessed it and said “THIS IS MY BODY.” He accomplished what he said. It was the first Mass, and has continued ever since, as he ordained.
 
I’ll let John answer: John 6:63-64 * “it is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh is of no avail . The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life
You keep repeating this, but it still doesn’t mean what you claim it means.
 
It is explained that the disciples were “breaking the bread” (Eucharist) on the first day of the week (which in Bible is Sunday)

Acts 20:7 KJV-Apocypha >
And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight.
 
Jesus did not say His Words were literal. And Jesus knowing the hearts (John 2:24) of those who did not believe, He wanted them to walk away…
I have shown you that when he said Amen amen He was talking literal. No where does it say He wanted them to walk away. It says He knew who would walk away but that is not the same as wanting them to.

If your interpretation of “flesh is of no avail” is correct than the Crucifixion meant nothing.
Jesus was not speaking to His Disciples when He spoke of destroying the temple. Jesus when speaking to His Disciples corrected their misunderstanding. John 3:3.
The Last Supper Jesus said “Do this in memory of Me” No way you can misinterpret that but I could be wrong.
 
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Scripture says many things.
1 Peter 3:21 is just one verse that you seem not to be familiar with.
I’m not quite sure why you shared that. What’s the relevance of 1 Peter 3:21? And could you share what you think the context of that passage is…
 
If your interpretation of “flesh is of no avail” is correct than the Crucifixion meant nothing.
Jesus was not speaking to His Disciples when He spoke of destroying the temple. Jesus when speaking to His Disciples corrected their misunderstanding. John 3:3.
The Last Supper Jesus said “Do this in memory of Me” No way you can misinterpret that but I could be wrong.
I’d suggest spending a little more time reflecting on last part of John 6: 63-64 - “The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life
 
He was referring to the temple of his body; and of course he accomplished what he said. At the last supper Jesus took the bread, blessed it and said “THIS IS MY BODY.” He accomplished what he said. It was the first Mass, and has continued ever since, as he ordained.
This would be a good spot to explain where in the book of Acts, or any passage through 95AD, Jesus was inside their bread…
 
John 4: 23-24 "But the hour is coming, and now is, when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth; for the Father is seeking such to worship Him. God is Spirit , and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth.”
So eating flesh is not suggested. So, do we have a literal contradiction, or is John 6 figurative…?
We will not worship on the mountain… check.
We will not worship in the temple… check.

That does not mean there will be no specific place to worship in spirit & truth. We are after all spirit & flesh.

I can worship at home in spirit & truth. Nothing wrong with that.

I can worship at the drive through in spirit & truth. Nothing wrong with that.

I can worship in the sanctuary on the Lord’s day in spirit & truth. Nothing wrong with that.
 
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If your interpretation of “flesh is of no avail” is correct than the Crucifixion meant nothing.
Not to mention His Incarnation.
Can you show why you think there is a contextual correlation between John 6, “flesh is of no avail” and the crucifixion…? Or what was the author’s meaning of each…?
 
This would be a good spot to explain where in the book of Acts, or any passage through 95AD, Jesus was inside their bread…
He is not inside the bread. The bread becomes his body. Like Paul said whoever eats or drinks of the table without discerning the body eats & drinks damnation onto himself.
 
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That does not mean there will be no specific place to worship in spirit & truth. We are after all spirit & flesh.
I’m not sure of the relevance to transubstantiation… and the actual passage reads “spirit & truth”…
 
Look at your own use of this verse. Why have you been posting it in regards to the Eucharist.
 
You really need to find out what is belief and your misunderstandings.
I get the impression that English is not your first language which might explain a few things.
 
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