What is wanting?

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That made zero sense.
That is not true. It makes complete sense.
You only rationalize when confronted with a problem that can have logic meaningfully applied. You then choose which logical outcome you wish to pursue - especially if there’s more than one outcome.
That is not correct. You don’t need free will to analyze a situation with some options.
Thus “free will” is present in both situations.
Free will enter only when you want to choose bad otherwise you choose the best option when you finished your analyzes.
And I’m assuming that you’ve already been told “good” and “bad” are completely meaningless words outside of some objective moral authority that defines them.
That is off topic so lets please set it aside.
This whole thing is a mess, respectfully. :confused:
That is not correct.
 
That is very true.

That is not true. A rational being, human, does not choose bad instead always choose good if he doesn’t have free will.

For what purpose?
You said a rational being and humans are rational beings, but humans do not always act rationally. Note that sin is an act contrary to reason.

Responsibility is necessary for there to be any expression of love or hate, for neither can be compelled. There is a distinction between objective sin and moral culpability.
 
You said a rational being and humans are rational beings, but humans do not always act rationally.
Yes, and the main reason that we act irrationally is because of free will. So the question is what is the use of it?
Note that sin is an act contrary to reason.
That we can agree upon.
Responsibility is necessary for there to be any expression of love or hate, for neither can be compelled.
Love and hate are emotions and we don’t completely have control on them. Here we are talking about act when free will is involved.
There is a distinction between objective sin and moral culpability.
That we know.
 
That is very true.

That is not true. A rational being, human, does not choose bad instead always choose good if he doesn’t have free will.
If he has no free will he chooses nothing.
 
Yes, and the main reason that we act irrationally is because of free will. So the question is what is the use of it?

That we can agree upon.

Love and hate are emotions and we don’t completely have control on them. Here we are talking about act when free will is involved.

That we know.
I am not referring to emotions of love and hate, but to charity and malice.

Collins Dictionary
  • Charity: an act of goodwill or affection.
  • Malice: Malice is behavior that is intended to harm people or their reputations, or cause them embarrassment and upset.
 
I am not referring to emotions of love and hate, but to charity and malice.

Collins Dictionary
  • Charity: an act of goodwill or affection.
  • Malice: Malice is behavior that is intended to harm people or their reputations, or cause them embarrassment and upset.
I see. But the question still stands what is the use of free will if it only allows us to do bad?
 
You need to be rational to do good. Free will just allows bad.
Bad can also be done without free will and free will allows for either choice.
Four possibilities:
    • Free Good
    • Free Bad
    • Unfree Good
    • Unfree Bad
    In the same sense as formal and material objects of logic there is formal and material sin. Formal pertains to actions with responsibility. Material can be with or without responsibilty.

    What are the differences between formal and material objects of logic?
    (Reference.com)
    • Formal logic proceeds from methods of observation and comprehension. It deals with the evaluation of logical statements and objects and with the tools used to arrive at those evaluations.
    • Material logic proceeds from assessment of physical and observable quantities. It is considered procedural and very focused on ideas of hardness and softness as they relate to the quality of evidence in either a legal or debate-postulate sense of the word
    .
 
Bad can also be done without free will and free will allows for either choice.
That is not correct if the agent is a rational being.
Four possibilities:

  1. *]Free Good
    *]Free Bad
    *]Unfree Good
    *]Unfree Bad

  1. There are only three possibility.

    1. *]Free and rationl → Good
      *]Free and rational → Bad
      *]Unfree and raional → Good
      *]Unfree and rational → Bad (this is not permissible for an rational agent)
 
That is not correct if the agent is a rational being.

There are only three possibility.


  1. *]Free and rational → Good
    *]Free and rational → Bad
    *]Unfree and rational → Good
    *]Unfree and rational → Bad (this is not permissible for an rational agent)

  1. No, truly there are four, because material bad act is possible even though the person is not culpable for it.
 
No, truly there are four, because material bad act is possible even though the person is not culpable for it.
What is material bad? I know you provided the definition but that doesn’t really help me. Could you please rephrase it?
 
What is material bad? I know you provided the definition but that doesn’t really help me. Could you please rephrase it?
Material sin is sinful in the objective since, regardless of the knowledge of the sinner.
Formal sin is known by the sinner to be sinful or intended to be sinful, this is the subjective sense.

Modern Catholic Dictionary

Materially Evil: Something that is objectively a moral evil, and therefore sinful, but a person does it either without knowing it is wrong, or under duress and without internal consent to the evil.

Formal Evil. A bad human act, done with knowledge that it is morally wrong, and with consent to performing it because of some advantage to the one who does it.
 
Material sin is sinful in the objective since, regardless of the knowledge of the sinner.
If you mean that sinner does not know the effect of his act to be sinful then that is not our concern otherwise you need to expand this so I can understand. Thanks.
 
If you mean that sinner does not know the effect of his act to be sinful then that is not our concern otherwise you need to expand this so I can understand. Thanks.
I did explain it with the second sentence from the Modern Catholic Dictionary. “Something that is objectively a moral evil, and therefore sinful, but a person does it either without knowing it is wrong, or under duress and without internal consent to the evil.”
 
I did explain it with the second sentence from the Modern Catholic Dictionary. “Something that is objectively a moral evil, and therefore sinful, but a person does it either without knowing it is wrong, or under duress and without internal consent to the evil.”
So he hasn’t done anything rationally bad.
 
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