What must I do to be saved?

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I was trying to get across is that grace is not a liscense to keep sinning (Rom 6:1). Of course if a believer sins there are consequences in this life but by God’s mercy and grace, it no longer has eternal consequence because the law of sin and death has been taken care of by Christ Jesus. .
Jesus said the opposite of this consistently through every single one of His Gospels. He said it directly and in parables.

What you do here has absolute eternal consequences. Let me know if you want verses, I think there are about 100 of them.

**What you said here, is in direct contradiction to the teachings of Jesus Christ. **

What did Jesus, your Lord and your God, tell you that you had to do to be saved?
 
Thanks David: I notice that Paul writes to the “saints at ________.” So we know that he is writing to saved people, right? BTW, it seems to me that the “goats” are Gentiles while the “sheep” are Jews in the reference you give. We know that our Lord Jesus Christ, in His earthly ministry, was “sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel” [Mt 15:24]. One other observation; the new covenant, is it not with Israel and Judah [Jer. 31:31]? Have a wonderful day in the LORD Jesus Christ.
QC
 
Thanks David: I notice that Paul writes to the “saints at ________.” So we know that he is writing to saved people, right? BTW, it seems to me that the “goats” are Gentiles while the “sheep” are Jews in the reference you give. We know that our Lord Jesus Christ, in His earthly ministry, was “sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel” [Mt 15:24]. One other observation; the new covenant, is it not with Israel and Judah [Jer. 31:31]? Have a wonderful day in the LORD Jesus Christ.
QC
Quickcat your post here is non sensical because it is not clear to me what your argument is. From what I can gather you are using scripture out of context. If Jesus mission was only to save the Jews then his death on the cross does not apply to Gentiles. So your point here is moot. Jesus was making a reference to the Mosaic covenant in light of the New Covenant he was about to mediate. Up until Christ God had only made a covenant with Israel but the new covenant was for all of humanity. The Gentiles would be grafted into the children of Abraham. The parable of the sheep and the goats is a reference to the judgment. The sheep and the goats all knew Christ but only the ones who did the works were the ones who were saved. Hence, we are not justified by faith alone but by works (James 2:24). That’s bible ONLY

Peace,

David
 
. We know that our Lord Jesus Christ, in His earthly ministry, was “sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel” [Mt 15:24].
What we know is, Jesus sought out gentiles and healed them and recognized a pagan as having greater faith than He had seen in Israel. We want to be careful not to misinterpret an English word in a single verse in an ancient Greek document as telling us Jesus Christ was sent exclusively for one group instead of for the whole world.
 
I was trying to get across is that grace is not a liscense to keep sinning (Rom 6:1).
To me, it seems like you are giving license to sin. Afterall, if there is no eternal consequence to sin, then it’s not really a big deal. If life gets too tough you could always just kill yourself and reap your Heavenly rewards, right?
Of course if a believer sins there are consequences in this life
Good ones or bad ones Leadee? It seems to me that many of the sinners in this life have it very easy by their sins.
but by God’s mercy and grace, it no longer has eternal consequence because the law of sin and death has been taken care of by Christ Jesus.
This is hard to reconcile with much of the Scripture we have been examining. It seems to me that you start with this narrow construct and then interpret much of the NT through it to rationalize your beliefs.
What we do or don’t do very much affects our inheritance in the Kingdom but our enterance into the Kingdom doesn’t hinge on them.
But this contradicts your claim above that “it no longer has eternal consequences”! You started with “no eternal consequence” and have now ended with an eternal consequence - our inheritance is an eternal reality, Leadee. If our inheritance is affected, then our eternity is affected.
Even worse for your position, Paul says that not only can certain sins can cause us to lose our entire inheritance in the KOG, but that they can “separate us from Christ” and that “Christ will be of no benefit” us (Gal 5:2). Do you really suppose that we can go to Heaven being separated from Christ? Of course not. Is salvation not a benefit of Christ? Of course it is. So your analysis of separating the inheritance of the KoG from being saved doesnt really add up.
I believe it is accurate that salvation is based on grace through faith in Christ alone, yes.
You are talking about our initial salvation, Leadee. Persevering in the state of grace(ongoing slavation), dying in that state and actually inheriting the KofG/going to Heaven (final salvation) is not by faith alone. In addition to faith, these other aspects of salvation involve things like good works and avoiding serious sin. Why else do you think Paul mentions them? So that we can have an easier life here on earth?! Thats downright silly…If you think I am mistaken on this, please provide some Scripture to indicate that going to Heaven or inheriting the KofG is by faith alone! I’ll give you a heads up: there isn’t any!
Not sinning would be considered obedience, no? I’m not sure how you would call that faith.
It is an act of faith Leadee, just like doing good works. Obedience is another entirely appropriate term, but they all represent acts of faith. You are mistaken in believing that there is a thing called faith that is somehow not united to our actions. Faith, like the tree, is known by its fruit. Fruit can witness to faith, lack of fruit can witness to lack of faith.
 
[BIBLEDRB]Luke 10:16:[/BIBLEDRB]

This is an indication that when the Apostles, and those appointed by the Apostles, speak, they are hearing Jesus speak. I don’t get how that has to do with what we’re talking about. In reading the whole passage it’s talking about sending them out with the established truth, not writing new truth.
Incidentally, why do we need “any other” Scripture verses? Is there a verse that says 2 verses are needed to substantiate anything in Scripture? You need scripture to interpret scripture if something doesn’t line up because there can’t be contradictions in God’s Word, He’s perfect and can’t change. You can believe that the bible says that tradition is the measuring rod for truth. I choose to believe that God’s Word is.
If so, please provide book, chapter and verse! I don’t think there is a verse for this because it’s common sense. If the Word of God is truth then there can’t be contradiction in it. Plumbline is just a term used to describe a measuring device so there is no scripture using that word. We’re talking about measuring truth since there can only be one truth.

All scripture is inspired by God - 2 Tim 3:16, 1 Cor 2:12-13, 2 Peter 1:21), not the church. The church is to carry out the truth and uphold it. The truth was established by God.

Scripture verse for this, too, please!
 
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Leadee:
If you have no verse which declares “Scripture interprets itself”, then you are following a man-made tradition, Leadee.

If you use the excuse, “Well, it’s just common sense”, then that opens up a lot of things that people can believe with no Scriptural basis.

To wit: a JW’s witness may say, when asked to provide a verse in Scripture that says that Jesus is NOT God, “Well, it’s just common sense. No man can be god!”

A Mormon can say, when asked to provide a verse that says new revelation will occur after the death of the last apostle, “Well, it’s just common sense. God wouldn’t stop revealing himself in the 1st century!”

A Seventh Day Adventist, when asked to provide a verse that says that the Apostles did not have the authority to change the day of worship to Sunday, will say, “Well, it’s just common sense. The Sabbath has always been Saturday!”

So, they can provide no verses to back up their claim–just like you can’t provide any verses to back up your claim–and it leaves them open to still proclaiming their heresies because, well, “It’s just common sense!” :eek:
 
What we know is, Jesus sought out gentiles and healed them and recognized a pagan as having greater faith than He had seen in Israel. We want to be careful not to misinterpret an English word in a single verse in an ancient Greek document as telling us Jesus Christ was sent exclusively for one group instead of for the whole world.
Hi Julia: Our Lord’s earthly ministry was to one people - Israel. He says so in Mt. 15:24. When He sent the 12 out to preach the gospel of the kingdom, He sent them ONLY to the “lost sheep of the house of Israel” Mt. 10:6. He cautioned them “not to go to the Gentiles” Mt. 10:5.
It is true that a Gentile centurion came to Him and asked that He heal his servant. This centurion had been very kind to Israel [Luke 7:5} and the Lord healed the servant. A Gentile woman also came to Him and when she accepted her subservient role [to Israel] He healed the daughter - Mt. 15:22-28… He told the Samaratian woman [who came to Him] that “Salvation is of the Jews” John 4:22. In John 12:20 we learn that some Greeks sought an audience with the Lord, but there is no record that He granted their request. Notice that these Gentiles came to Him, He had not gone out to them.
I pray that this is helpful.
Grace and Peace,
QC
 
He told the Samaratian woman [who came to Him] that “Salvation is of the Jews” John 4:22.
It is curious that Jesus did not say here, “Salvation is FOR the Jews”. :hmmm:

How do you feel about the Gospel of Luke, written by a non-Jew? Do you discount what he writes because he is not Jewish? Or do you believe that while he was not Jewish and Jesus’ message was not for him, Luke was still inspired by the Holy Spirit to write the Gospels?
 
Jesus said the opposite of this consistently through every single one of His Gospels. He said it directly and in parables.

What you do here has absolute eternal consequences. Let me know if you want verses, I think there are about 100 of them.

**What you said here, is in direct contradiction to the teachings of Jesus Christ. **

What did Jesus, your Lord and your God, tell you that you had to do to be saved?
I’m not saying that what we do doesn’t have eternal consequences. We will be judged on our works as believers. However, we will not be judged on our sins because Jesus took care of that penalty on th cross.
 
Quickcat your post here is non sensical because it is not clear to me what your argument is. From what I can gather you are using scripture out of context. If Jesus mission was only to save the Jews then his death on the cross does not apply to Gentiles. So your point here is moot. Jesus was making a reference to the Mosaic covenant in light of the New Covenant he was about to mediate. Up until Christ God had only made a covenant with Israel but the new covenant was for all of humanity. The Gentiles would be grafted into the children of Abraham. The parable of the sheep and the goats is a reference to the judgment. The sheep and the goats all knew Christ but only the ones who did the works were the ones who were saved. Hence, we are not justified by faith alone but by works (James 2:24). That’s bible ONLY

Peace,

David
Pastor David: “Out of context?” Not at all! IN CONTEXT! Our Lord Jesus Christ, in His first advent, tells us clearly that He was "Sent ONLY to the LOST SHEEP of I-S-R-A-E-L [Mt. 15:24]. He sent the 12 “ONLY to the LOST SHEEP of ISRAEL” Mt. 10:5,6. We now know, through Paul’s epistles, that our Lord Jesus Christ “Gave Himself a ransom for ALL, TO BE TESTIFIED IN DUE TIME!” At the time of our Lord’s earthly ministry the Gentiles were “…Without Christ, being aliens from the Commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and WITHOUT GOD in the world.” But now - God raises up Saul of Tarsus, renames him Paul, and makes him the apostle to the Gentiles [Rom. 11:13]. Now that is the Bible “rightly divided” 2 Tim. 2:15.
Grace and Peace,
QC
 
I’m not saying that what we do doesn’t have eternal consequences. We will be judged on our works as believers. However, we will not be judged on our sins because Jesus took care of that penalty on th cross.
Can you give an example of what this looks like, Leadee?

For example, let’s say someone is “saved” by coming down for the altar call (something, BTW, not found in the Bible). He knows he’s going to heaven, but for the rest of his life wavers back and forth between being righteous and living a sinful life. He volunteers at an orphanage and tithes 10%. At one point he commits adultery. And then he dies.

How will he be judged?
 
If you have no verse which declares “Scripture interprets itself”, then you are following a man-made tradition, Leadee.

If you use the excuse, “Well, it’s just common sense”, then that opens up a lot of things that people can believe with no Scriptural basis.

I don’t mean that scripture interprets itself. I worded that wrong. The only person that can interpret scripture correctly is the Holy Spirit of course. I’m talking about understanding what it says. If something doesn’t jive with what it says then it has to be rethought because then it can’t be true. In order for a truth to be accurate, it must line up with all of scripture, otherwise that would mean that God is inconsistant and we all know that He is not.
 
PRmerger;8217795:
If you have no verse which declares “Scripture interprets itself”, then you are following a man-made tradition, Leadee.

If you use the excuse, “Well, it’s just common sense”, then that opens up a lot of things that people can believe with no Scriptural basis.

I don’t mean that scripture interprets itself. I worded that wrong. The only person that can interpret scripture correctly is the Holy Spirit of course. I’m talking about understanding what it says. If something doesn’t jive with what it says then it has to be rethought because then it can’t be true. In order for a truth to be accurate, it must line up with all of scripture, otherwise that would mean that God is inconsistant and we all know that He is not.
Fair enough.

So why are you asking why there’s another verse in Scripture that says that the Church is the pillar and foundation of truth?

Do you ask your pastor, when he quotes a verse in Scripture in his sermon, to give you another verse that confirms what he just preached on?
 
Thanks David: I notice that Paul writes to the “saints at ________.” So we know that he is writing to saved people, right?
Wrong. The term “saint” is not defined in the bible and so we don’t “know” what was meant by it. In addition, there is the general term “saint” and the more specific term “Saint”, which have different meanings. Furthermore, you add considerable confusion using the somewhat ambiguous term “saved”.
BTW, it seems to me that the “goats” are Gentiles while the “sheep” are Jews in the reference you give.
Jesus clearly defines who the sheep and goats are: those who did good works those who failed to do good works. There may be an element of truth to what you say, however, but not in the nationalistic sense you mean it. In the NT a descendant of Abraham, ie a Jew, is anyone who shares in Abraham’s faith (it is not by circumcision) and such a person has entered into the New Covenant through faith in Christ. Those who do the good works through faith in Christ are His sheep and (in a lesser sense) are true Jews by virtue of that fact.
…our Lord Jesus Christ, in His earthly ministry, was “sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel” [Mt 15:24].
I suppose you are familiar with the rest of Mt 15 where Jesus heeds the womans request based upon her “great faith”? That fact obviates whatever implication you intended to make regarding the exclusivity of his mission. Understand that her “great faith” is what unites her to Abraham and Israel (Jews) under the New Covenant according to what I explained above, and you will come to see that Christ is not attempting to be exclusive, but is actually revealing what the “House of Israel” is truly built upon: faith in Him.

Blessings!
 
I don’t mean that scripture interprets itself. I worded that wrong. The only person that can interpret scripture correctly is the Holy Spirit of course. I’m talking about understanding what it says. If something doesn’t jive with what it says then it has to be rethought because then it can’t be true. In order for a truth to be accurate, it must line up with all of scripture, otherwise that would mean that God is inconsistant and we all know that He is not.
Ok Leadee, I think this above underlined part highlights the possible error in your thinking.

IF an interpretation lines up with all the other parts of Scripture, It does NOT mean it is the only UNIQUE interpretation that is possible.

You can interpret Scripture in this logically consistent manner and have millions of different interpretations which even contradict each other.

Now how is this possible? It’s possible because logical consistency is not an indicator by-it-self to whether something is TRUE. Logical inconsistency DOES prove that something is FALSE. But the contrary is not TRUE.

So right now, the Catholic Church has it’s own interpretation of Scripture which is logically consistent and you have your own. To answer which one is right, you have to go back to your foundations. You can’t argue about consistency of the other using your set of theological axioms because the Catholic Church has a different set. In your case, it seems that your foundation is something you haven’t thought about. So to argue about whose right by using the Bible is a meaningless exercise and I have no clue why people do this all the time.

You have chosen a book randomly (possibly after some prayer), and luckily it has been the Bible. But that is not how it works. You have to choose Christ first. Then from his resurrection, you have to see how you arrive at Christianity. Then you will realize everything that you are missing.

We are not a people who follow a book. We follow a person. So what you have to do Leadee is become an early Christian and then follow Christ. Now how would you do that? You listen to the Apostles. That is the only rational position. You will discover this on your own if you answer the question I’ve always asked.

How do you go from the Resurrection of Christ to Christianity?

God Bless 🙂
 
I don’t know. I didn’t ask. All I know was, she was married and had three children in the first marriage and he was also previously married with children. I don’t even want to go in the whole annulment thing. That’s way off the subject.
I have started a new thread on this, as it is important that you and the others who may be lurking understand: Catholics cannot divorce and re-marry.
 
Hi Julia: Our Lord’s earthly ministry was to one people - Israel. He says so in Mt. 15:24.
Jesus’ entire ministry was to as many people and types of people as He could reach and He went purposefully to the Gentiles. The entire book of Mark says so, among others.

That aspect of His ministry shows us clearly that He is for the whole world, just as He told His Apostles to do, He demonstrated Himself. We do not negate the consistent testimony of His entire ministry set out in four Gospels in order to accommodate one verse that has multiple possibilities for translation and intent.
. When He sent the 12 out to preach the gospel of the kingdom, He sent them ONLY to the “lost sheep of the house of Israel” Mt. 10:6. He cautioned them “not to go to the Gentiles” Mt. 10:5.
That’s correct. When sending them out by themselves as"Apostles in training" He circumscribed their actions. He, Himself, had already shown them, by purposely seeking out Gentiles, that His message and salvation were for all people. He did not wish the Apostles to go to the Decapolis or to Perea as He had. He wished to keep them close.
It is true that a Gentile centurion came to Him and asked that He heal his servant. This centurion had been very kind to Israel [Luke 7:5} and the Lord healed the servant. A Gentile woman also came to Him and when she accepted her subservient role [to Israel] He healed the daughter - Mt. 15:22-28… He told the Samaratian woman [who came to Him] that “Salvation is of the Jews” John 4:22. In John 12:20 we learn that some Greeks sought an audience with the Lord, but there is no record that He granted their request. Notice that these Gentiles came to Him, He had not gone out to them.
I pray that this is helpful
Grace and Peace,
QC
I think it would be more helpful to you, if you got a map of the Holy land at the time of the Incarnation and traced Jesus’ movements and understood what lands He went to and who lived there. If they allowed me to post an image here I would to help you understand how obvious your error is.

Let’s take the Samaritan woman, she did not “come to Him.” Jesus went out of His way to go to that well and wait for her. She would never have spoken to him at all had he not spoken to her first.

Did Jesus say “Salvation is from the Jews?” Certainly, He is salvation and He came from Israel, to bring salvation to the world:

21 “Woman,” Jesus replied, “believe me, a time is coming when you will worship the Father neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem. 22 You Samaritans worship what you do not know; we worship what we do know, for salvation is from the Jews. 23 Yet a time is coming and has now come when the true worshipers will worship the Father in the Spirit and in truth, for they are the kind of worshipers the Father seeks. 24 God is spirit, and his worshipers must worship in the Spirit and in truth.”

I think you might understand better if you Google “Decapolis” and then trace Jesus’ movements from place to place in Mark.

BTW, are you M.A.D.?
 
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