W
wisdomseeker
Guest
It is legitimate to ask where something is in the Bible when the appeal argument is made that a practice was done in the Early Church, as found in the Bible. If all this slain stuff was in the Early Church, where is the evidence, biblical or extrabiblical, that this is the case? Oh, and the only time the language of tongues is clarified beyond the phrase “speaking in tongues”, it was a known language. We can assume that later on what Paul addressed was an unknown language, but that would be just an assumption.
For the record, no one has ever shown evidence that what is speaking in tongues today constitutes a language, and such evidence would be fairly easy to produce if it were a real language. I am all for those who want to practice the spiritual gifts, but dubious about some of the things brought over from the Pentacostal movement. They are new. To call them traditional begs for the evidence to be shown from history that this is Catholicism. So, whether from the Bible, the Church fathers, or Church writings, this should be easy to show, if it were true.