Which Bible says "Hail Mary, full of Grace" instead of "Hail, Highly favored one" etc?

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helec338

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I want to read Bible versions that only say “Hail Mary, full of Grace.” I understand this to be the Latin Vulgate version? Is this correct? Are there any other versions of the Bible that address The Annunciation in this manner instead of “Hail, Highly Favored One.” I find that line a slap in the face of our Blessed Mother.
 
Amen! 👍

Off the top of my head, -]three/-] four answer this question:
  1. Douay-Rheims
  2. 1941-1969 Confraternity Bible (the immediate predecessor of the current NAB)\
  3. The Knox Translation
  4. The Revised Standard Version - Catholic Edition (& Second Catholic Edition)
It is an utter shame that the current Catholic bible reads as it does. And, for the footnotes to insinuate that Mary never said the Magnificat is adding insult to injury.
 
Check this site. The Bible names are all abbreviated, but the full name for each of the abbreviations can be found towards the bottom of the page. 🙂
 
suko said:
Check this site.
Click to expand...
Bible Gateway? Blech… that’s a hodgepodge of mostly Protestant Bibles.

Regarding “full of grace,” the Knox translation is quite modern (but very British) English, yet retains the traditional phrase (with a slight change): “Hail, thou who art full of grace,” etc. Check it out on New Advent.
 
To be perfectly honest, I have never seen any translation that includes Mary’s name in the greeting (and I have access to well over 75 translations, Catholic and Protestant - including Koine Greek and the Latin Vulgate). po18guy has given a good list of Catholic versions to look at. I would be very interested if you do find a version that includes Mary’s name in the greeting.
 
Ad_Orientem said:
Bible Gateway? Blech… that’s a hodgepodge of mostly Protestant Bibles.

Regarding “full of grace,” the Knox translation is quite modern (but very British) English, yet retains the traditional phrase (with a slight change): “Hail, thou who art full of grace,” etc. Check it out on New Advent.
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What’s with the “Blech”?

If I go into a bookstore or library, the vast majority of books are not Catholic at all. So what? You don’t have to read all the other versions before you get to read the Catholic one because they have a menu you can choose from. Go there and select NABRE and you’re gold. 👍

Biblegateway is good because you can search for words within verses; the US bishops don’t have that on their site but biblegateway has the exact same version.

It has DR 1899 and NABRE. NABRE is what is used in the Mass, and it what is on the US Bishops web site. How many Catholic Bibles do you need?

MS
 
You will not find any Bible that says “Hail Mary”. It’s “Hail, full of grace.”

The omission of Mary’s name is significant.
 
Thanks for the links and comments everyone.

The most important part to me is the Hail, full of grace as it signifies her state as being free of sin and the Hail for her role as heavenly royalty.
 
Cachonga said:
To be perfectly honest, I have never seen any translation that includes Mary’s name in the greeting (and I have access to well over 75 translations, Catholic and Protestant - including Koine Greek and the Latin Vulgate). po18guy has given a good list of Catholic versions to look at. I would be very interested if you do find a version that includes Mary’s name in the greeting.
Click to expand...
Her name has never been in the translation, but rather, added to the devotional prayer. “Full of grace” is how Saint Jerome translated it in the late 300s, when the Church was unified, so any claim of an agenda is an epic fail.
 
helec338 said:
Thanks for the links and comments everyone.

The most important part to me is the Hail, full of grace as it signifies her state as being free of sin and the Hail for her role as heavenly royalty.
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Isn’t the word grace there the same as another as another verse speaking about a group if Christians? 2:30 in th he morning I can’t quote exactly but someone else here will knoe it and I will be looking up whatwas written about it when my brain is a bit clearer. 🙂
 
helec338 said:
Thanks for the links and comments everyone.

The most important part to me is the Hail, full of grace as it signifies her state as being free of sin and the Hail for her role as heavenly royalty.
Click to expand...
I think one needs to be careful thinking that ‘full of grace’ means being free from sin.

Interesting that the RSVCE & DR 1899 has the saying ‘full of grace’ in Luke 1:28 but it is also found in Acts 6:8 it states that Stephen is ‘full of grace’.

The RSV does not have Luke 1:28 saying ‘full of grace’, but ‘Hail, O favored one’. But in Acts 6:8 it still says that Stephen is ‘full of grace’.

NASB does not say full of grace in Luke 1:28 but it does again say in Acts 6:8 that Stephen was full of grace.

I think we need to come to the understanding that just the term ‘full of grace’ does not mean sinless.

Just my thoughts.
 
SJacob7 said:
NASB does not say full of grace in Luke 1:28 but it does again say in Acts 6:8 that Stephen was full of grace.

I think we need to come to the understanding that just the term ‘full of grace’ does not mean sinless.

Just my thoughts.
Click to expand...
Right, then we reach the point the actual language is different.

google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&uact=8&ved=0CB4QFjAA&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.catholic.org%2Fnews%2Fhf%2Ffaith%2Fstory.php%3Fid%3D50095&ei=dg8kVNzjDsWKyAS9m4C4Bw&usg=AFQjCNEvDp3DssZFyaD-P3Qz5rnqjvygBQ
 
SJacob7 said:
I think one needs to be careful thinking that ‘full of grace’ means being free from sin.

Interesting that the RSVCE & DR 1899 has the saying ‘full of grace’ in Luke 1:28 but it is also found in Acts 6:8 it states that Stephen is ‘full of grace’.

The RSV does not have Luke 1:28 saying ‘full of grace’, but ‘Hail, O favored one’. But in Acts 6:8 it still says that Stephen is ‘full of grace’.

NASB does not say full of grace in Luke 1:28 but it does again say in Acts 6:8 that Stephen was full of grace.

I think we need to come to the understanding that just the term ‘full of grace’ does not mean sinless.

Just my thoughts.
Click to expand...
Just a thought. But if Mary was FULL of grace, then there was no room for sin in her.:twocents:
 
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po18guy:
Her name has never been in the translation, but rather, added to the devotional prayer. “Full of grace” is how Saint Jerome translated it in the late 300s, when the Church was unified, so any claim of an agenda is an epic fail.
Click to expand...
I wasn’t making any claim of “an agenda”. I was simply pointing out that the inclusion of Mary’s name was not Scriptural (remember, the OP was asking for a Bible version that has “Hail Mary, full of Grace.”).
 
SJacob7 said:
I think one needs to be careful thinking that ‘full of grace’ means being free from sin.

Interesting that the RSVCE & DR 1899 has the saying ‘full of grace’ in Luke 1:28 but it is also found in Acts 6:8 it states that Stephen is ‘full of grace’.

The RSV does not have Luke 1:28 saying ‘full of grace’, but ‘Hail, O favored one’. But in Acts 6:8 it still says that Stephen is ‘full of grace’.

NASB does not say full of grace in Luke 1:28 but it does again say in Acts 6:8 that Stephen was full of grace.

I think we need to come to the understanding that just the term ‘full of grace’ does not mean sinless.

Just my thoughts.
Click to expand...
Because even the translation “full of grace” is itself imprecise for Luke 1:28, and in the underlying Greek there are two different phrases used to describe Mary and Stephen.

Stephen is “pleres charitos”, which is translated exactly as “full of grace” or “full of favour”.

Mary, however, is “kecharitomene”, which cannot be properly translated into English without a whole lot of awkwardness. “Kecharitomene” is a passive, perfect, vocative participle. The root is “charitos”, grace, favour. Passive means the action of being graced is being done to the subject (Mary). Perfect means that the action took place sometime in the past and effects continue on to the present. Participle means the verb is being used as a modifier, in this case, an adjective, modifying Mary. And finally, its case is vocative, which means it’s being used as a form of address, giving it the function of a title.

Translate that precisely into English and you get, “O you who were graced/favoured before and remain so even today”

“Full of grace” is close but is not precise enough because it loses the continuous sense of the perfect.

To get the full force of this phrase, you have to go to the Greek; not even the Latin captures the power of this address precisely enough, much less any English translation.
 
porthos11 said:
Because even the translation “full of grace” is itself imprecise for Luke 1:28, and in the underlying Greek there are two different phrases used to describe Mary and Stephen.

Stephen is “pleres charitos”, which is translated exactly as “full of grace” or “full of favour”.

Mary, however, is “kecharitomene”, which cannot be properly translated into English without a whole lot of awkwardness. “Kecharitomene” is a passive, perfect, vocative participle. The root is “charitos”, grace, favour. Passive means the action of being graced is being done to the subject (Mary). Perfect means that the action took place sometime in the past and effects continue on to the present. Participle means the verb is being used as a modifier, in this case, an adjective, modifying Mary. And finally, its case is vocative, which means it’s being used as a form of address, giving it the function of a title.

Translate that precisely into English and you get, “O you who were graced/favoured before and remain so even today”

“Full of grace” is close but is not precise enough because it loses the continuous sense of the perfect.

To get the full force of this phrase, you have to go to the Greek; not even the Latin captures the power of this address precisely enough, much less any English translation.
Click to expand...
👍

We need to add a like button to the forums.
 
SJacob7 said:
I think one needs to be careful thinking that ‘full of grace’ means being free from sin.

Interesting that the RSVCE & DR 1899 has the saying ‘full of grace’ in Luke 1:28 but it is also found in Acts 6:8 it states that Stephen is ‘full of grace’.

The RSV does not have Luke 1:28 saying ‘full of grace’, but ‘Hail, O favored one’. But in Acts 6:8 it still says that Stephen is ‘full of grace’.

NASB does not say full of grace in Luke 1:28 but it does again say in Acts 6:8 that Stephen was full of grace.

I think we need to come to the understanding that just the term ‘full of grace’ does not mean sinless.

Just my thoughts.
Click to expand...
Yes, the Church was extremely careful as they considered, over a long period of time, just how and why Jesus, who had to be born with sinless flesh, created his mother likewise for that purpose.

Luke 1:28 is reflective of her sinlessness, not definitive of it. The Catholic Church does not define doctrine by a single, isolated verse, or even all verses, as the bible is fragmentary and incomplete. She uses also that which was not written down, as well as applying its guidance by the Holy Spirit.

You are using modern, agenda-driven translations. Saint Jerome in the late 300s had no agenda except to serve the truth,
 
porthos11 said:
Because even the translation “full of grace” is itself imprecise for Luke 1:28, and in the underlying Greek there are two different phrases used to describe Mary and Stephen.

Stephen is “pleres charitos”, which is translated exactly as “full of grace” or “full of favour”.

Mary, however, is “kecharitomene”, which cannot be properly translated into English without a whole lot of awkwardness. “Kecharitomene” is a passive, perfect, vocative participle. The root is “charitos”, grace, favour. Passive means the action of being graced is being done to the subject (Mary). Perfect means that the action took place sometime in the past and effects continue on to the present. Participle means the verb is being used as a modifier, in this case, an adjective, modifying Mary. And finally, its case is vocative, which means it’s being used as a form of address, giving it the function of a title.

Translate that precisely into English and you get, “O you who were graced/favoured before and remain so even today”

“Full of grace” is close but is not precise enough because it loses the continuous sense of the perfect.

To get the full force of this phrase, you have to go to the Greek; not even the Latin captures the power of this address precisely enough, much less any English translation.
Click to expand...
And the Greek is a translation that may indeed have lost some of the majesty contained in the Aramaic, in which Gabriel spoke those words to Mary.

Jerome used “gratia plena” for Mary and “plenus gratia” for Stephen. An obvious difference, which could be expounded upon by Latin speakers.
 
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