Which Bible says "Hail Mary, full of Grace" instead of "Hail, Highly favored one" etc?

[porthos11]

Mary is not “Queen of Heaven”.

Oh, you are SO wrong and this statement shows a poor understanding of Biblical royalty and culture.

But this is an attack for another thread, not this one.

 

[ProVobis]

Most English Bibles do not state “full of Grace”.

Remember the Bible wasn’t originally written in English.

You can study the Phrase in Greek if you wish. Just Google it.

Full of Grace doesn’t necessarily mean sinless.
Only Christ was sinless.

Whether or not Mary was sinless is debate that will never end.
Believe what you feel comfortable with. It doesn’t matter.

Salvation is through your faith in Christ’s Resurrection not Mary’s conduct in her life. Rom 10:9

Mary is not “Queen of Heaven”. There is only one true God in Heaven, on Earth, and anywhere else.

Hosea 13:4
Yet I am the Lord thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: for there is no saviour beside me.

So one phrase changes the entire Catholic theology? I used to think grace is fundamental to salvation. Now I have to be highly favored?

 

[Path_Finder]

Luke 1:28,
And when the angel had come to her, he said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.”

In order to uncover the covert exegesis in this verse we must revert to the original Greek language in which it was written.
The word ‘Hail’ (Chairo in Greek) is an honorable salutation given to royalty such as ‘Hail Caesar’ or ‘Hail King of the Jews’.
Archangel Gabriel, using ‘Hail’, conveys to us that Mary is being addressed as royalty.

Did you notice that Gabriel did not call her by name by saying ‘Hail Mary full of grace’?
It is an indication that she was given a new title, “Full of Grace”.
The original Greek word used (kecaritomene) for ‘Full of Grace’ translates in English to ‘a plenitude of Grace’.
St Jerome used the Latin words ‘Gratia Plena’ for the term in the Latin Vulgate, the first translation of the New Testament from Greek.

GOD used “The Lord is with thee” to embolden certain people to which He had given a special and difficult calling.
A few Old Testament recipients are Moses (Exodus 3:12), Joshua (Joshua 1:5,9), and Gideon (Judges 6:12-13,16).

Mary is the only person in the New Testament to be called “Blessed art thou among women”.
Those words are repeated again to her by Elizabeth in Luke 1:42.

thecatholictreasurechest.com/covert2.htm

A concise version of what has been related before in those radio programs and probably elsewhere.

 

[porthos11]

Mary is not “Queen of Heaven”.

This statement is so wrong. But this is an attack for another thread; go ahead and open a new one. This thread is only about the translation issue, not Mary’s queenship.

 

[Mystophilus]

But, Latin aside, are all scholars agreed that the Greek is “having been favo(u)red” in the English and it’s the only possible translation? If Jerome knew 2014 English would he have translated it that way?

If I ever find anything on which all scholars in a single field agree, I will probably fall off my chair in shock. That said, I would lay good odds on a survey of readers of Greek listing “having been favoured” (minus the ‘u’, for Americans) as the most literal rendering in English. However, it seems much less forceful when abstracted from its context: it is, after all, saying that the Virgin had been favoured by Almighty God.

“Full of grace”, by the way, is also what the Latin says at Acts 6:8, whereas the Greek differentiates between them.