S
sandusky
Guest
That would be true, but for the fact that it is a strawman, and a sophomoric one at that; one of the most basic tenants of the reformed faith is that of authority—God’s, and it is found in his personal revelation recorded in the two testaments.The reason that protestants will admit of no “ultimate authority” that would rectify their admittedly “ERROR PRONE” interpretational situation, is simply because they can’t admit that there IS an ultimate authority,… which makes them (ultimately) crypto-agnostics.
To paraphrase Deb216, “do not presume to tell a non-Catholic what non-Catholics are and what they believe until you know,” Keikiolu. “It makes you look foolish.”
Catholics are not excluded from this supposed protestant conundrum, as personal fallibility is based upon humanness, and not religious affiliation.You’ve just said that they are not infallible. This indicates that they are only taking their best guess at the meaning of the Scriptures. They have no way of actually knowing for certain.
To ALLFORHIM’s question:
jmcrae replied:…how can we know that the Pope knows for certain?
Because of Jesus’ promise to him, that the Holy Spirit would guide him to the truth in all things, and that the gates of Hell can never prevail.
The answer begs the question, concerning the validity of the papacy, as well as papal infallibility.This is how we know that the Pope is infallible, because of Jesus’ infallible promise to him. (Jesus is infallible, too.)
While it is possible that all of those assumptions concerning the papacy are true, it is also possible that none of those assumptions are true.
But what is certainly true of anyone who claims to have made a choice either to join the RCC, or not, his choice is fallible.
Anyone making a choice, of any kind, examines, and interprets data of some sort, and then makes a choice based upon the findings of that examined and interpreted data, and that choice is an equally fallible choice for everyone—Catholic, and non-Catholic alike; therefore, Catholics, and non-Catholics are in the same epistemological boat (although Catholics are unabashedly loathe to admit it).
What in that verse gives Peter infallibility, J?Only St. Peter was personally given the gift of infallibility. Matthew 16:18.
The promise is that Hades will not prevail against the body of Christ—the Church—and it is a poetic expression that the followers of Jesus would never die (the second death) (cf Jn 5:24); Peter made it clear that he was quite capable of teaching error, and acting improperly all while supposedly occupying a papal office (Gal 2:11ff; cf 1 Pet 5:1 with 2 Jn 1; 3 Jn 1).He states that the Gates of Hell will not prevail against Peter, meaning that Peter will not be capable of teaching anything that is not actually true.
V 15 says that scripture is able [Gk *dunamai], to give one wisdom that leads to salvation; that Greek word is used throughout the NT with respect to the ability of God to do anything, including save His people forever, or to the uttermost, and it is also used in Jas 1:21 as well, supporting what Paul said to Timothy; namely that, “the implanted word is able to save ones soul;” in v22, James admonishes each believer to be a doer of that implanted word.Then what good is an infallible Bible without an infallible interpreter? And, where does it state in Scripture that Scripture is infallible? 1 Tim 3:16 says Scripture is useful, profitable…
If the Old is able to do that, how much more the full revelation in the New?
Holding the low hand, Deb throws the Luther Card. At that link, you can get things straightened out concerning Luther and scripture, Deb.Early Christians did not read the Word. It was proclaimed to them. What matters is not that we read the Bible but that we learn what we need to learn. Catholics hear the scripture from the cradle to the grave. We learn the entire Bible, not just the parts that Luther saw fit to keep.