Why did God prevent Moses from seeing the promised land?

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I believe you are on to something Valkie. Let’s consider the historical context. The children of Israel had come out of Egypt. Because they were slaves they had to learn many new things and unlearn many others. In Egypt the Pharoah was the human embodiment of divine power on earth. After the plagues the Israelites probably attributed this concept to Moses. After all, didn’t it look like he was more powerful than Pharoah?
Anywho, whenever the Israelites had a problem they went to Moses to solve it, probably thinking he had divine power to solve it. Moses had to continually disabuse them of this notion, claimnig that it was God that was doing these works.
Except this one time! When he struck the rock saying in anger" must we ** bring you water, thus attributing divine power to himself, if only for an instant. When God punished him for this the Israelites perhaps finally figured out that mMoses was not divine and was liable for correction just like them.
Notice Moses did not protest. He knew he messed up.**
 
Ani_Ibi said:
Oh no! But don’t you get angry sometimes? With God? I mean we can’t pretend because God reads our hearts. If we repent and confess doesn’t God forgive and forget?
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God is strong enough to handle our anger. He recognizes that sometimes we can be like children who throw tantrums in frustration. I have had my share of arguments with God. The prophets of the O.T. often challenged God. In each of my arguments with God, it was He who won, yet I never felt the loser. I have often gained insight in the process. Anger is an emotion, not a sin. It is what we do with that anger that can become a sin.
It is my understanding that in striking the rock twice, Moses failed to acknowledge that it was God, not he (Moses), who provided the water for the people of Israel in the desert. Therein lay the sin.
 
Re: Why did God prevent Moses from seeing the promised land?
God is strong enough to handle our anger … DebChris
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Do you want the “over opinionated” comment, I am sure to supply that. He plummeted from the heights due simply to his “anger” All Protestants know in the text he refused to “speak to the Rock” (the ‘Rock’ neither made, nor created, nor begotten, but proceeding from the Living G-d) The Arc is like the ‘Rock’ as a “type”. Am sure that is incorrect so please be kind to me.
BLESSINGS
From: SendingBlessing
 
roman6320 said:
I believe you are on to something Valkie. Let’s consider the historical context. The children of Israel had come out of Egypt. Because they were slaves they had to learn many new things and unlearn many others. In Egypt the Pharoah was the human embodiment of divine power on earth. After the plagues the Israelites probably attributed this concept to Moses. After all, didn’t it look like he was more powerful than Pharoah?
Anywho, whenever the Israelites had a problem they went to Moses to solve it, probably thinking he had divine power to solve it. Moses had to continually disabuse them of this notion, claimnig that it was God that was doing these works.
Except this one time! When he struck the rock saying in anger" must we ** bring you water, thus attributing divine power to himself, if only for an instant. When God punished him for this the Israelites perhaps finally figured out that mMoses was not divine and was liable for correction just like them.
Notice Moses did not protest. He knew he messed up.**

This is probably the best explanation that has been given. We know that Moses was often frustrated with the Israelites calling them “a stiff necked people” when speaking with God.
CCC1774…“Emotions and feelings [including anger] can be taken up in the virtues or perverted by the vices.
1767…They are morally qualified only to the extent that they effectively engage reason and will.”
Anger, as a desire for revenge becomes sin.(CCC2303)
It was the action taken in anger, not the emotion, that was the sin.
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I have often looked at this in context of Moses’ life.
This is a man that had seen God at work doing the miraculous often.

And yet when this time came, he apparently lost faith in God.
God told him one way, and he chose another.

All of the times he did something that God commanded, and the miraculous happened. Then he goes off and does something ‘his own way’

To one who is given much, much is demanded of. And Moses was indeed granted much more then most. This sin of losing faith exacts a much greater punishment then it would under normal circumstance.
 
There is another possible reason for why Moses was not permitted in the Holy land. In a very real way, Moses represented the oral tradition that was prevelant with the Jews at the time. The written word was not exactly in vouge (sp?). Perhaps, in order to emphasize the sacredness and importance of the written word, now given to the Jews in Tablets and written down as Torah a short time later (according to tradition), Moses does not enter Israel.
 
Valke2 said:
There is another possible reason for why Moses was not permitted in the Holy land. In a very real way, Moses represented the oral tradition that was prevelant with the Jews at the time. The written word was not exactly in vouge (sp?). Perhaps, in order to emphasize the sacredness and importance of the written word, now given to the Jews in Tablets and written down as Torah a short time later (according to tradition), Moses does not enter Israel.
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How can Moses represent the oral traditions, when tradition tells us that Moses wrote the written Laws? Isn’t the Pentateuch credited to him - well to God through Moses?
 
NotWorthy said:
How can Moses represent the oral traditions, when tradition tells us that Moses wrote the written Laws? Isn’t the Pentateuch credited to him - well to God through Moses?
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But the people themselves never saw the written word while Moses lived. They are directed to write the Torah down when they cross over into Israel.
 
Valke2

In your opinion, in what language did they write?
Egyptian, Hebrew, others… or perhaps a combination of different languages…
 
Valke2 said:
But the people themselves never saw the written word while Moses lived. They are directed to write the Torah down when they cross over into Israel.
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I thought Jewish Tradition has always claimed that Moses wrote the Torah. Of course, other’s finished some of the books (the parts after Moses’ death), but isn’t Moses considered the author of the Pentetauch? If not, I’m almost positive he was at one time - when did this belief change?
 
Seamus_Sully said:
Valke2

In your opinion, in what language did they write?
Egyptian, Hebrew, others… or perhaps a combination of different languages…
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I would say Hebrew. But I don’t believe the Torah was written until several centuries after Sinai, which is a belief that most orthodox Jews would disagree with.
 
NotWorthy said:
I thought Jewish Tradition has always claimed that Moses wrote the Torah. Of course, other’s finished some of the books (the parts after Moses’ death), but isn’t Moses considered the author of the Pentetauch? If not, I’m almost positive he was at one time - when did this belief change?
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That is the traditional belief, yes. I am approaching it from a more secular rather than theological position. Also if you read Deut. there is a section where Moses commands the levites to write the Torah when they cross over.

Deut. 27:1-9:
Then Moses and the elders of Israel charged all the people as follows: Keep the entire commandment that I am commanding you today. On the day that you cross over the Jordan into the land that YHWH, the God of your ancestors, promised you… You shall write on the stones all the words of this Torah very clerarly. …

I suppose that even if we agree that Moses wrote the Torah, it doesn’t take away from the idea of the written word taking center stage after his death.
 
whatevergirl said:
Nm 20:1-13

The whole congregation of the children of Israel
arrived in the desert of Zin in the first month,
and the people settled at Kadesh.
It was here that Miriam died, and here that she was buried.

As the community had no water,
they held a council against Moses and Aaron.
The people contended with Moses, exclaiming,
“Would that we too had perished with our kinsmen in the LORD’s presence!
Why have you brought the LORD’s assembly into this desert
where we and our livestock are dying?
Why did you lead us out of Egypt,
only to bring us to this wretched place
which has neither grain nor figs nor vines nor pomegranates?
Here there is not even water to drink!”
But Moses and Aaron went away from the assembly
to the entrance of the meeting tent, where they fell prostrate.

Then the glory of the LORD appeared to them,
and the LORD said to Moses,
“Take your staff and assemble the community,
you and your brother Aaron,
and in their presence order the rock to yield its waters.
From the rock you shall bring forth water for the congregation
and their livestock to drink.”
So Moses took his staff from its place before the LORD, as he was ordered.
He and Aaron assembled the community in front of the rock,
where he said to them, “Listen to me, you rebels!
Are we to bring water for you out of this rock?”
Then, raising his hand, Moses struck the rock twice with his staff,
and water gushed out in abundance for the people
and their livestock to drink.
But the LORD said to Moses and Aaron,
“Because you were not faithful to me
in showing forth my sanctity before the children of Israel,
you shall not lead this community into the land I will give them.”
These are the waters of Meribah,
where the children of Israel contended against the LORD,
and where the LORD revealed his sanctity among them.
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Just as another perspective, some Jewish and Christian scholars say that in the italicized portion Moses was mis-representing God (and therefore possibly breaking an understanding of the commandment to not take the Lord’s name in vain). First, Moses is taking some of God’s credit (are we to bring water for you out of this rock). Second, Moses is expressing an anger to the people as though it were God’s anger - even though God did not express anger when he gave Moses the command (“Take your staff and assemble the community, you and your brother Aaron, and in their presence order the rock to yield its waters. From the rock you shall bring forth water for the congregation and their livestock to drink.”) God seems to be fairly merciful in this case - but Moses makes it sound like God is very angry with the Israelites. Therefore Moses is both taking some of the credit and mis-representing God.
 
Nita said:
I’ve always found it very telling that Moses does not protest God’s judgement as unfair; and Moses was one who talked very freely with God. My conclusion has always been that he knew he was guilty of a serious offense. Having said that, it is interesting that Moses apparently tried to get God to change His mind about the punishment:

Deuteronomy 3:23-27 And I besought the LORD at that time, saying, …Let me go over I pray, and see the good land beyond the Jordan,…" But the LORD was angry with me on your account, and would not hearken to me; and the LORD said to me, “Let it suffice you; speak no more to me of this matter. Go up to the top of Pisgah, …and behold it with your eyes; for you shall not go over this Jordan.”

Also interesting, regarding the nature of Moses’ sin, is this quote:

*Psalms 106:32-33 They angered him at the waters of Meribah, and it went ill with Moses on their account; for they made his spirit bitter, and he spoke words that were rash. *

Nita
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I agree, and Psalm 106 is very revealing. Here’s the scenario. Moses is really ticked off with all the complaining and then, after obtaining God’s plan to bring the water from the rock, he used this to get back to the people on his own behalf. Notice that he did not give God the glory in humbleness and thanksgiving, but took it on himself and Aaron, making it look like a magic act to get back at the “rebels”. This was his sin.
 
DrPiano said:
Just as another perspective, some Jewish and Christian scholars say that in the italicized portion Moses was mis-representing God (and therefore possibly breaking an understanding of the commandment to not take the Lord’s name in vain). First, Moses is taking some of God’s credit (are we to bring water for you out of this rock). Second, Moses is expressing an anger to the people as though it were God’s anger - even though God did not express anger when he gave Moses the command (“Take your staff and assemble the community, you and your brother Aaron, and in their presence order the rock to yield its waters. From the rock you shall bring forth water for the congregation and their livestock to drink.”) God seems to be fairly merciful in this case - but Moses makes it sound like God is very angry with the Israelites. Therefore Moses is both taking some of the credit and mis-representing God.
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Interesting. Poor Moses…he had a lot going on.:o
 
Valke2

If I recall correctly, Lewis Ginsburg records one or more stories that Egyptian could have been used.

I find the entire thing most interesting.

Thanks for your answer.
 
An interesting forum, folks. Lots of great perspective.

One thing that interests me about this incident is the type of punishment? Whatever the level of Moses’ sin, why bar him from the Promised Land? After all the things he had done for God, it seems pretty harsh. But when you think about it, it does make a lot of sense, since it was less a punishment to Moses than it was a blessing to the Israelites.

How can it be a blessing? Moses stature among his people was great. Heck, he divided the Red Sea and spoke to God and got the 10 Commandments! Certainly would’ve impressed me! Still does. If Moses would have been allowed into the Promised Land, he would have eventually died and been buried. His burial site could have turned into a monumental problem with people worshipping at his grave. The Old Testament repeatedly mentions the many wrongs the People of Israel did, worshipping false gods and other abominations. Just think having Moses’ tomb around and the problems that could begin when he becomes some kind of god-figure after a generation or two or three.

That’s my take for what it’s worth. Did the punishment fit the crime? Maybe yes, maybe no. Did the blessing fit the crime? It seems to.
 
I have yet to hear anyone mention that Moses’ act was an act of liturgical abuse! He was given specific directions (“rubrics”) by God on how he was to derive the water from the rock. He deviated from the divine norms and was barred. St. Paul later claims that the rock was a typological parellel of Christ.

But liturgical abuses are punished throughout the Old Testament.
Take for example the son’s of Eli: Instead of eating the lesser portions of meat after the sacrafice and holocaust offering, and instead of boiling the meat as prescribed by God’s law, the son’s of Eli took choice meat portions, intended for God and had them roasted. This seale their doom. (1 Samuel 2:12-17)

Take again for example the story of Uzzah and the ark: The ark was supposed to be carried by men, instead Uzzah had it placed on an ox cart…strike one. Next, no one was to touch the ark of the covenant but the Levitical priests. Uzzah, after the cart proved to be unstable, touched the ark to steady it…strike two. God struck him down for disobeying his set dictates. God dispensed with strike three. (2 Samuel 6).

These example, the one with Moses, and many others should give us a greater respect for the liturgical directives from God and His Church. God establishes all things for a reason through His mouthpiece on earth…the Holy Roman Catholic Church. We show God our greatest act of love by worshipping Him according to the liturgical norms established by the Church. When we alter or go against the prescribe norm for worship, we do God and ourselves a diservice.

“Obedience is the moral virtue by which all moral virtue flows!” - St. Alphonsus Ligouri, Doctor of Moral Theology
 
Augustine7177 said:
I have yet to hear anyone mention that Moses’ act was an act of liturgical abuse! He was given specific directions (“rubrics”) by God on how he was to derive the water from the rock. He deviated from the divine norms and was barred. St. Paul later claims that the rock was a typological parellel of Christ.
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I addressed this in posts 7, 13, & 23 (although I didn’t use the term “liturgical abuse”), but it hasn’t seen much play.

I agree with you, though. God said to do it one way. Moses figured, “well, the other way worked the first time. I’ll just do it the same way again”. Even though Moses didn’t know he was messing up the typology of Christ (through the rock), he should have realized he was deviating from God’s Divine Plan.
 
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