N
noobio
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I have watch videos of Muslim trying to show that there prophet is in the Bible ( they usaully use John 14: 15-17). My question to the muslims is why does Muhammad have to in the bible?
I don’t know why they would try to, since they believe that the Bible has been corrupted by men and that only the Quran is a pure revelation. I guess it’s kind of like some Christian missionaries in India that try to find references to Jesus in Hindu scriptures.I have watch videos of Muslim trying to show that there prophet is in the Bible ( they usaully use John 14: 15-17). My question to the muslims is why does Muhammad have to in the bible?
The bible is not corrupt when it seems to talk about their prophet, but when the gospels prove the diety of Chist it is corrupted.I don’t know why they would try to, since they believe that the Bible has been corrupted by men and that only the Quran is a pure revelation. I guess it’s kind of like some Christian missionaries in India that try to find references to Jesus in Hindu scriptures.![]()
They think that every revelation before Muhammad has been corrupted by men. For example, they think that God sent Abraham, Moses, Isaac, etc… to the Jews with a true revelation, but that the Jews then corrupted that revelation and it became the Tanakh. Then they think that God sent Jesus to set the revelation straight, but then that was corrupted by the Christians and it became the New Testament. Then, finally, they think that God sent Muhammad to clarify what was true and what wasn’t by receiving the Quran from the Angel Gabriel, and it couldn’t be corrupted because God prevented it from being corrupted. Of course, one must ask oneself why an omnipotent God wouldn’t just prevent the revelation from being corrupted in the first place, but I digress.The bible is not corrupt when it seems to talk about their prophet, but when the gospels prove the diety of Chist it is corrupted.![]()
I am not sure about other holy books, but I have found Mohammad no where in the complete bible. Can you please show me which verse in the bible talks about Mohammad.It is not just in the Bible that Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is mentioned.
He is prophesied in other scriptures as well as can be read in this thread.
There are to be found a number of verses and passages in the Bible which point to the coming of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh).I am not sure about other holy books, but I have found Mohammad no where in the complete bible. Can you please show me which verse in the bible talks about Mohammad.
If you actually took the time to examine the verses where Jesus talks about the comforter, you will notice it is not your prophet.There are to be found a number of verses and passages in the Bible which point to the coming of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh).
For example, the Fourth Gospel, like every other book of the New Testament, was written in Greek and not in Aramaic, which was the mother-tongue of Jesus (pbuh) and his disciples.
What word or name was it that Jesus (pbuh) used in his native tongue to express that which the Fourth Gospel has translated as “the Paraclete” and which has been converted into “comforter” in all the versions of that Gospel?
The “Paraclete” does not signify either “consoler” or “advocate” or "comforter’; in truth, it is not a classical word at all. The Greek orthography of the word is Paraklytos which in ecclesiastical literature is made to mean “one called to aid, advocate, intercessor”. One need not profess to be a Greek scholar to know that the Greek word for “comforter or consoler” is not “Paraclytos” but “Paracalon”.
To read more, kindly go to this article.
If you examined the verses you would notice the comforter is the Holy Spirit, not a human. The comforter would stay with the disciples forever. Your prophet was never with them, he came 500 years after them. The comforter is able to be** in ** the believers. Your prophet is not able to do that, because he is obviously not God.There are to be found a number of verses and passages in the Bible which point to the coming of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh).
For example, the Fourth Gospel, like every other book of the New Testament, was written in Greek and not in Aramaic, which was the mother-tongue of Jesus (pbuh) and his disciples.
What word or name was it that Jesus (pbuh) used in his native tongue to express that which the Fourth Gospel has translated as “the Paraclete” and which has been converted into “comforter” in all the versions of that Gospel?
The “Paraclete” does not signify either “consoler” or “advocate” or "comforter’; in truth, it is not a classical word at all. The Greek orthography of the word is Paraklytos which in ecclesiastical literature is made to mean “one called to aid, advocate, intercessor”. One need not profess to be a Greek scholar to know that the Greek word for “comforter or consoler” is not “Paraclytos” but “Paracalon”.
To read more, kindly go to this article.
I know… I know… Jay…
After reading Naik’s assertion above, I have to ask, how much Greek does Naik know? From where does Naik get his information from? How does he know that Parakletos is the warped reading for Periclytos? Does he cite any actual textual support? In fact, let me ask “where did Naik get this nonsense”? Did he invent it on the spot, or, is he relying upon Ahmad Deedat’s Exhaustive & Comprehensive Manual / Lexicon / Theological Encyclopedia Dictionary of the Greek New Testament?
On the other hand, take a look at Kittel’s Theological Dictionary of the New Testament. This is a 10 volume set that is recognized as one of the top, if not the very top, of Greek New Testament References [13].
On page 800, of volume 5, the study on the Greek word for Comforter is given. The meaning and definition of this word is analyzed from its use in Greek literature, in the Septuagint, in Rabbinical literature, in Philo’s work, in early Christian literature, and in the NT itself. Below are some quotes defining the meaning of parakletos.
Here is another Greek reference that addresses Parakletos.
"Parakletos" is the Greek N. T. word for "Comforter", literally “called to one’s side, i.e., to one’s aid”. It denotes a legal assistant, counsel for the defense, an advocate, one who pleads another’s cause, an intercessor. (From Vine's Exp. Dictionary. of N.T. Words, p200) [14].
Some Muslims assert that the original word in the N.T. was 'periklutos' - i.e. 'praised one', which is 'Ahmad' in Arabic. 'Ahmad', or 'Praised One' is a name ascribed to Muhammad]. This is a baseless assertion. There is no evidence at all supporting this claim. There are thousands of N.T. manuscripts pre-dating Islam and not one of these contains the word 'periklutos', anywhere. Muslims like to charge Christians with changing their Bible - 'tahrif' (corruption) of their Scriptures, but it is Muslims who are guilty of 'tahrif' when they claim that the original word was 'periklutos'.
As Cragg says in "Jesus and the Muslim", p.266:
Remember, the Muslim claim is based on a desperate attempt to find Biblical support for Muhammad's statement that the Bible foretold him. The Bible never foretold Muhammad so Muslims have thrashed about, twisting the Scriptures, trying to find some way to make Muhammad's words true – otherwise they would have to accept that Muhammad was a liar and false prophet.
Further, take for example a portion of verse 14:16, “He will give you another Comforter.” If periklutos is used, it read, “He will give you another praised one.” This statement is both out of place in its context and devoid of support elsewhere in the Bible – Jesus is never called the “periklutos” or “praised one”.
However, 1 John 2:1 says:
"...we have one who speaks to the Father in our defense - Jesus Christ the Righteous One." Here, the Greek word 'Parakletos' is used, defined as 'one who speaks in our defense'.
Let me ask the reader, in view of the evidence, does Naik have any credibility here? Naik knows he has no logical or textual support, so instead of discussing something he cannot defend, he lies to his readers and misleads them by making a bold statement — “Paracletos is the warped reading for Periclytos”. Sometimes if people cannot reason, or present a sound argument, they shout or make obtuse statements. Here Naik is doing just that: he has no case, so he relies on outrageous statements to fool his Muslim readership.
Naik is supposed to be a medical doctor. Let me ask you, the reader – would you want him making a diagnosis on you? “Oh, you have a pain in your stomach, well, I will remove your foot – that will cure you!” And that is exactly what Naik is doing here. He is willing and able to deceive his Muslim readership, and he does not want them to search things out for themselves.