C
colliric
Guest
It is not coincidental because of the fact that the apostles actually had the Greek Septuagint which included the book of Tobit. John quotes from the Septuagint in his own Gospel.I don’t understand the reference between Tobit and Revelation. Can you elaborate on the relationship? I thought you said that Revelation references Tobit directly–and I understood that to mean that it quoted Tobit, but I don’t see a quote. At most you have a coincidental relationship, but not what would be called a materially direct reference.
Are you suggesting that the Apostle John never read the book of Tobit before he wrote that rather direct Tobit reference? Are you suggesting the Apostle john was not familar with a book he had in his own copy of the Old Testament? It is clearly a materially direct reference to something the Apostle understood to have been holy revelation. It is not coincidental simply because the apostle had a copy of the old testament in Greek(He quotes from it in his own gospel!), and surely read the whole thing through at least once, after all he was an Apostle!
This was why Martin Luther wanted to label Revelations as “Apocrypha” too…