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livingwordunity
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Heterosexual marriage is normally limited to two people because every child has two biological parents, one male and one female.
Is it? Who says?Heterosexual marriage is normally limited to two people because every child has two biological parents, one male and one female.
If you’re referring to the two people thing, common sense says this. Frankly, polygamous relationships are simply not common, and do not occur the majority of the time in modern society. Therefore, it would be pretty accurate to say that normally (as in, the usual, or most common situation) heterosexual couples are two-peopled. Now, if you’re questioning who said that children have one mother and one father, I am not entirely positive who said this first, but I think that we’re pretty sure on this one.Is it? Who says?
Well, they recently tried to pass a bill in California that would allow a child to have 3 legal parents at the same time. I’m not sure what the status of it is right now.You are right…once gay marriage is the norm, the next hurdle is for society to accept marriage involving more than two people.
GodIs it? Who says?
So where and when did God say that marriage is restricted to two people because children generally have two biological parents? (the claim to which I was responding).
In the Bible, read it, WITH THE GUIDEANCE OF THE HOLY SPIRIT, not hokomai:thumbsup:So where and when did God say that marriage is restricted to two people because children generally have two biological parents? (the claim to which I was responding).
Can you suggest a verse which gives this reason for monogamy, given the OT acceptance of polygamy?In the Bible, read it, WITH THE GUIDEANCE OF THE HOLY SPIRIT, not hokomai:thumbsup:
He [Jesus] answered, “Have you not read that he who made them from the beginning made them male and female, and said, `For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder.” - Matthew 19:4-6Can you suggest a verse which gives this reason for monogamy, given the OT acceptance of polygamy?
That’s an interesting secret they are keeping from us. “Gays” going into a so-called “same-sex marriage” with the agreement to see others outside of the two. How will the government deal with it when all the others they are having sex with start to demand inclusion in the so-called “marriage”? They are taking the “death by a thousand cuts” approach to destroying society’s understanding of marriage.There is evidence that points to the opposite being the case for many.
nytimes.com/2010/01/29/us/29sfmetro.html
catholicvote.org/discuss/index.php?p=18467
nytimes.com/2003/08/31/world/now-free-to-marry-canada-s-gays-say-do-i.html?pagewanted=all&src=pm
God bless,
Ed
Well, yes I understand about the teaching of the Church, but I was advised to read the Bible on this point. and your verse does not forbid polygamy. Why cannot, under this verse, a man have a series of relationships with different women, creating ‘one flesh’ on each occasion? Or a woman more than one husband? But I was challenging the assertion that marriage can be only between a single man and a single women because everyone has two biological parents. I asked why. i was told the Bible. I asked where it says this. So far, nowhere.He [Jesus] answered, “Have you not read that he who made them from the beginning made them male and female, and said, `For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder.” - Matthew 19:4-6
In addition to the Old Testament, we Catholics have the New Testament as well as the Magisterium which is guided by the Holy Spirit and is the interpreting authority for the scriptures. Think of it like a three legged stool.
Actually, you were told God, not the Bible. The two aren’t to be confused.Well, yes I understand about the teaching of the Church, but I was advised to read the Bible on this point. and your verse does not forbid polygamy. Why cannot, under this verse, a man have a series of relationships with different women, creating ‘one flesh’ on each occasion? Or a woman more than one husband? But I was challenging the assertion that marriage can be only between a single man and a single women because everyone has two biological parents. I asked why. i was told the Bible. I asked where it says this. So far, nowhere.
Thank you for explaining that to me. But you are wrong:Actually, you were told God, not the Bible. The two aren’t to be confused.
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http://forums.catholic-questions.org/images/icons/icon1.gif **Re: Why do people who push so-called "same-sex marriage" define it as between two people?**
Quote:
Originally Posted by **Hokomai** [forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_khaki/viewpost.gif](http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=9566186#post9566186)
*So where and when did God say that marriage is restricted to two people because children generally have two biological parents? (the claim to which I was responding).*
Hokomai, you’re argument makes little sense. Are you saying it’s reasonable to interpret singular subjects as plural subjects?Well, yes I understand about the teaching of the Church, but I was advised to read the Bible on this point. and your verse does not forbid polygamy. Why cannot, under this verse, a man have a series of relationships with different women, creating ‘one flesh’ on each occasion? Or a woman more than one husband? But I was challenging the assertion that marriage can be only between a single man and a single women because everyone has two biological parents. I asked why. i was told the Bible. I asked where it says this. So far, nowhere.
It is standard Christian polygamist doctrine that marriage is between one man and one woman, each time it happens. It is possible for there to be more than ‘one’. I have no view on what Jesus meant, or whether he even said this or something like it, but the words like so many words of scripture are open to interpretation, including extreme interpretation. Why, if he wanted to be clear Jesus did not say: “I lay down some rules about marriage. Only an adult man and an adult woman can get married, and then only once while the other is alive, and they can’t get divorced ever” ? However, I digress. I was asking for the authority for the Bible saying that marriage could only be between a man and a woman because each of us has two biological parents, and no one has been able to cite it for me, despite the claim that it is in there somewhere.Hokomai, you’re argument makes little sense. Are you saying it’s reasonable to interpret singular subjects as plural subjects?
[bibledrb]Matthew 19:4-6[/bibledrb]
In other words, it’s reasonable to interpret “two shall be one” as “three or four shall be one”? Or “his wife” could really mean “his wives”? That’s a reasonable interpretation to you?
My mistake - I mistook you for a rational human being.It is standard Christian polygamist doctrine that marriage is between one man and one woman, each time it happens. It is possible for there to be more than ‘one’. I have no view on what Jesus meant, or whether he even said this or something like it, but the words like so many words of scripture are open to interpretation, including extreme interpretation. Why, if he wanted to be clear Jesus did not say: “I lay down some rules about marriage. Only an adult man and an adult woman can get married, and then only once while the other is alive, and they can’t get divorced ever” ? However, I digress. I was asking for the authority for the Bible saying that marriage could only be between a man and a woman because each of us has two biological parents, and no one has been able to cite it for me, despite the claim that it is in there somewhere.