V
Vico
Guest
See post #758, August 28 for the original post on the man.
It is not pertinent, however to satisfy your query, I have no negative feelings about the man in this scenario. God has allowed us free will and I accept that some will choose to reject God and others will not.
- You wrote: “So, you are choosing to get into more detail about the man.”
A. The sin against the first commandment is not new information. See Post #812, September 4 which has: “It is no because he willed himself into the sinful situation by first falling away from the faith (a sin against the first commandment) and then by marriage without approval of the Church (a sin against the first commandment) and then persisting in fornication (in the situation of near occasion of sin) and also involving scandal. Having been trained in the faith and accepting it when younger, he is aware of the Divine Law (which includes the natural law and ecclesial law).”
Also see post #848, September 8 has: "“I know that I have pridefully chosen to ignore the laws of the Church which is necessary for my salvation. I am weak in resisting the temptation of my civil marriage wife, but I do not want to separate. I wish to return to the sacraments and I hope and expect that I will not die before a convalidation””
And see post #876 September 13 for sins against the Holy Spirit (first commandment), this has bearing also on your next statement treated here. - You wrote: “You have said nothing about the man refusing to accept forgiveness.”
A. It is mentioned many times that he does not have proper contrition, and that he could repent but does not.
- You wrote: “If “no one is deemed to be ignorant of the principles of the moral law” then there would not be a need for a conversion of conscience.”
A. Incorrect. From CCC 1860 shows that man has conscience “But no one is deemed to be ignorant of the principles of the moral law, which are written in the conscience of every man.”
And CCC 1865 that it may be clouded: “Sin creates a proclivity to sin; it engenders vice by repetition of the same acts. This results in perverse inclinations which cloud conscience and corrupt the concrete judgment of good and evil. Thus sin tends to reproduce itself and reinforce itself, but it cannot destroy the moral sense at its root.” - You wrote: “Concerning “imputability” and “culpability” and so forth, which you continue to bring into this conversation and I have responded at times, here you are showing a focus on God’s response to sin rather than the man’s K&WRG. This is part of the apples v. oranges I am addressing. It is a little confusing having two conversations, right?”
A. No. It is the topic of the thread, the why of those the commit mortal sins (which is rejection). Without it, we would not be on topic. - You wrote: “In order for a person to knowingly reject something, he has to know what he is rejecting. The man does not know who he is rejecting. He is fearful of hell, but he does not know God. If the man knew the seriousness of his sin, he would not need a conversion of conscience, of which he is in need.”
A. No, CCC 1859 “Mortal sin requires full knowledge and complete consent. It presupposes knowledge of the sinful character of the act, of its opposition to God’s law.” He does not need to know God. - You wrote: “he has “full knowledge”?”
A. This was answered yes several times in these series of posts. - You wrote: "You have proven nothing concerning the man knowing the seriousness of the sin. "
A. It is my scenario and it is by design that he knows the seriousness of the sin, per the teaching of the Church. - You wrote: “This, however, is a contradiction to your saying that he wants to have his marriage blessed, that he puts his relationship with God as “equal” to this wife, and that he hopes and “prays” to be back with the Church. The man sounds confused and/or irrational again.”
A. It is a wish and he is unwilling to do what it takes to repent at this time. It would be one part of what is necessary but insufficient in itself. - You wrote: “It does not matter what he “knew” before.”
A. Actually it does, for he willfully got himself into the situation in the past, and without the necessary contrition, continues in that state. - You wrote: “He is operating on his own truth now. He is rejecting a false image,…”
A. Actually he is operating with doubt, as mentioned in previous posts, he knows what the Church teaches, but does not assent, but does not know if his ideas are true, therfore he is fearful. Did you forget the previous response on this question?
A. The yes is to what is required for mortal sin, as repeatedly stated. He has a wish based upon fear.
- You wrote: “I don’t see God as being offended; the law is offended.”
A. Willful opposition to Divine Law is an offense to God. CCC 1871 “Sin is an utterance, a deed, or a desire contrary to the eternal law (St. Augustine, Faust 22L 42, 418). It is an offense against God. It rises up against God in a disobedience contrary to the obedience of Christ.”