Good evening, Vico!!
- You wrote “Yes, in this case the man is irrational. To me, irrational is not “knowingly” and certainly not “willingly”. You disagree, and I accept your position.”
A. It is the teaching in the Catechism the mortal sin (irrational) is committed with full knowledge and consent, not a personal opinion.
It is a personal opinion, in that you agree with what you were taught, and it makes sense to you. To me, a person who is irrational is not knowingly or willingly doing
anything in that condition. You obviously think that you are right, and that there is no room for difference of opinion in the question. I get it.
Yes, sin is irrational. The difference here is that the
person himself is irrational, he does not know the truth, and he behaves in ways that are both in line with what he thinks and not in line. He thinks that he is bound and not bound. When we say that sin is irrational, we mean that it goes against a certain set of reasons that we see as true. When we are talking about a man who is irrational, a person who does not know the truth but thinks he does and behaves according to an untruth that he thinks is true, he
himself is irrational, we are talking about the
person not the sin. The irrationality of sin is not in reference to the person, it is in reference to the act itself
characterized as against reason as we know it.
You wrote “There is nothing in what you quoted that says that an irrational person is of “full knowledge”.”
A. Of course there is! because “Mortal sin is sin whose object is grave matter and which is also committed with full knowledge and deliberate consent.” (CCC 1857) and simultaneously “Sin is an act contrary to reason”. (CCC 1872)
Yes, sin is an act contrary to reason. “Reason” is in the eye of the beholder, you and I, the community, the Church. If the sinner does not share in the “reason”, that is, he
personally is irrational, then he is far from anything I can call “full knowledge”. We get back to the question Vico, did the crowd who hung Jesus commit a mortal sin? You would probably say yes. Yet, they did not know what they were doing. They believed an untruth, that Jesus was not God, not a person of value, expendable. Their behavior was irrational, in our eyes, but rational in their own. And Jesus forgave them. I put a lot of weight on what happened at the crucifixion.
- You wrote: “A man behaving against his own will is not “willingly” doing so. The man’s intent changed, if he had ever intended to reject his own rather insignificant image of God.”
A. He is not acting against his own will in my scenario.
You stated that the man tried to avoid sin and failed. This is an act against his own will. He did not want to fail.
John Paul II wrote in Apostolic Exhortation
Reconciliation and Penance:
Likewise, care will have to be taken not to reduce mortal sin to an act of “fundamental option” - as is commonly said today - against God, intending thereby an explicit and formal contempt for God or neighbor. For mortal sin exists also when a person knowingly and willingly, for whatever reason, chooses something gravely disordered. In fact, such a choice already includes contempt for the divine law, a rejection of God’s love for humanity and the whole of creation; the person turns away from God and loses charity. Thus the fundamental orientation can be radically changed by individual acts. Clearly there can occur situations which are very complex and obscure from a psychological viewpoint and which have an influence on the sinner’s subjective culpability. But from a consideration of the psychological sphere one cannot proceed to the construction of a theological category, which is what the “fundamental option” precisely is, understanding it in such a way that it objectively changes or casts doubt upon the traditional concept of mortal sin.
vatican.va/holy_father/john_paul_ii/apost_exhortations/documents/hf_jp-ii_exh_02121984_reconciliatio-et-paenitentia_en.html
Yes, the question is, does anyone ever knowingly and willingly choose something gravely disordered? I use the word “knowingly” in an all-inclusive sense, and you do not. Was he saying that an irrational person, believing untruths and not knowing God in a real way has “full knowledge”? All of this begs an example from JPII himself. What examples did he have in mind? How does this apply to those who hung Jesus on the cross? Did they not do something gravely disordered? Yet, they did not know what they were doing, and Jesus forgave them, unrepentant. Do you know how JPII would have applied what he said to the crucifixion and what Jesus said from the cross? Are people who “do not know what they are doing” knowingly rejecting God?
Premise A: Man knows what he is doing, and knows God and divine law.
Premise B. Man commits sin, which is a rejection of God and divine law.
Conclusion C. Man knowingly rejects God and divine law.
If we were to agree on “If A
and B, then C”, then I am saying that I do not observe Man meets premise A, and neither did the crowd that hung Jesus or anyone else who sins. To me, you have not proven that the man knows God in a real way. He believe that he is " not bound to the precepts of the Church", so he does not know divine law with any surety either as he also says, “I have my own ideas about marriage.” In my opinion you are saying “If not A, but B, then C”. Or rather, “If B only, then C”.
You are saying, I think, that the man meets premise A. I disagree. Can we leave it at that? Shake on it?
Good night Vico, I am tired…
Perhaps irrational too…
