I think you’re misunderstanding Plato here, Touchstone. Plato was saying that everything people pursue, they pursue because it is good – that is, because it is perceived to be good. This was an analytic definition of good, if you will: “Good is what everyone pursues” or “Good is the object of desire”. Telos = Agathos, in Greek.
I agree that Plato and Paul similarly distinguished empirical interests and real interests – this is human nature, to have local passions and appetites compete with long-term and more noble interests. But Paul co-opts the “real interests” that Plato identifies, pointing those interests at God, where Plato points them at “the form of the Good”. There can’t be a bigger transfer than that – Plato’s rational self-interest, mastering base appetites to focus on virtue, pursuing Knowledge of the Good, is hijacked by Paul, where the “form of the Good” is replace with “God as good”.
For Plato, man must struggle with the conflicts and distractions of his empirical interests, but his
real interest natural orient toward the Good – not a person, but the Good, that which god(s) also align with. Thus, the real interests for man are platonic pinciples, NOT a person or a will. For Paul, “the Good” is conflated with God, and man’s real interests are oriented toward a
person, a
will. This is a switch of the most profound kind. Plato would have scoffed.
When Jesus said that God alone is good, if we fit this into the above equation, we get: God alone is what everyone pursues. This is precisely the reason why, though men can be virtuous, we cannot be good; if we were good, then we would be the end of our own desiring.
This gets confused with and bogged down by the issue of “empirical interests”. As above, Paul and Plato (and I and you) would agree that empirical interests are a fact of human nature to deal with, but once we get past that and focus on the object of man’s
real interest – the objects of those interests couldn’t be more different. Here the Euthyphro dialog sheds light on this. Paul comes down hard on the side of “piety is that which is loved by the gods (er, God in his case)”. Euthyphro and Socrates (this is Plato writing) agree that the God is
independent of the gods, and the gods love the Good because it is good.
Without rehashing Euthyphro’s Dilemma in 6000 chars or less, Plato’s Socrates in
Euthyphro objects to piety being sourced in the gods. The gods loved piety for piety’s sake, not their own sake. Paul supposes the Good is good because God
is goodness himself, the response Plato is resisting in
Euthyphro.
So wait, what does it mean that God alone is what everyone pursues? Exactly the same thing Plato meant. Plato was saying that everyone wants their desires fulfilled, but they do not know what they truly desire – they do not know what the Good is. Jesus is saying that everyone desires God, because God is (the) good. But unless they know who God is, they will not know who it is that they desire.
Indeed, Paul is trying to co-opt Plato’s philosophy, and to graft it onto Yahweh and the Jesus cult.
For example, Paul’s reference to “through a glass darkly” (I Cor 13) is a riff on Plato’s use of the same idiom in
Phaedo. Paul is contradicting Plato, however, as Plato has it thus:
I dare say that the simile is not perfect - for I am very far from admitting that he who contemplates existence through the medium of ideas, sees them only “through a glass darkly,” any more than he who sees them in their working and effects.
Plato is
rejecting the “through a glass darkly” idea for the clear-thinking man. Paul says no, we
do see through a glass darkly, due to the noetic effects of the Fall, and only later in the afterlife will we see clearly, “face to face”.
At every point, Paul seeks to do a heart transplant on Plato’s ideas, ripping out “the Good” and replacing it with “God”. And this is why I maintain that they are fundamentally at odds with each other – Plato identifies the Good as apart from and “above” gods, and Paul inverts that, saying “good” is just a part of God.
This is also evident in Paul’s speech on Mars Hill, where he makes this explicit, telling the audience that Yahweh is their “unknown god”, and is knowable, and doesn’t love the good because the good is good, but is good because that’s his nature, to
define good.
Bringing the word “righteous” changes the conversation entirely. There is no obvious connection between the Greek word righteousness (justified - “dike-”) and the Greek word for good (agathon). Although, to be fair, I’m not sure what word Paul was using, but it certainly wasn’t “good”.
I’ll grant that my raising of Paul’s invocation of Isaiah (Rom 3) there was overly brief, and obscured by the semantics of “righteousness”. For Paul, righteousness was following the Law of Moses, then upon Jesus’ resurrection, faith in the atonement that offered. But all of that is predicated on his transferal of the Good, from Plato’s principle to Yahweh’s. “Good” for Paul is something drastically different than it was for Plato, and the object of each man’s “real interests” lay at opposite ends of the Euthyphro’s Dilemma.
-TS