M
Marsha_Adams
Guest
The Sabbath did not exist as an obligation upon man prior to the Exodus. When God rested after creation, He did not obligate man to observe it, nor did He suggest that it was more than a one time event. Abraham who came out of an idolatrous environment was not enjoined to keep the Sabbath. He offered many sacrifices but none of them were connected to the Sabbath. There is no hint that any of the patriarchs attached any importance to a day. There simply is no biblical proof that between creation and Moses the Sabbath was ever mentioned. Again if you do want to apply to extra-biblical sources (which is fine) you are left with an idolatrous bad luck day prior to Moses.The conclusion is false because of a false understanding of what it means to base one’s belief on the Bible alone.
As noted by another poster it is legitimate to use outside sources to understand the Bible. I then named some: maps, archaeology, lexicons, etc…
To understand yes, but not to supplement what is not there.
Read the teachings of Jesus and you’ll find Him appealing to nature as an object lesson. Is His teachings to be rejected because He didn’t use the Bible alone?
Jesus didn’t use the Bible Alone because Sola Scriptura is a false doctrine, but since the SDAs cling to it, you really should abide by it.
Your conclusion doesn’t follow from that. It’s the understanding of what “Bible Alone” means that is false.
By applying reason and logic to the Bible we can prove that the doctrine of the Trinity and the practice of monoganism (and that to hold slaves is wrong) can be proven to be biblical. Therefore, by using reason and logic (and the facts found by Dr. William Mead Jones) we can prove that Sabbath-keeping can be dated back to Creation. It is only by ignoring basic facts–the Sabbath was celebrated a month before the Law was given–and not applying common sense–so how far back before that was the Sabbath known?–can we “conclude” that the Sabbath didn’t exist before it was given as a law at Sinai.