the Holy Scriptures tell us that we may confess our sins directly to God, in the name of Jesus Christ, our Lord and Saviour. I further posted to you,
"there is no reason why Catholics should not confess their sins to a priest if they so desire, as to any other person in accordance with James 5:16 :-
“Confess your faults one to another, and pray one for another, that ye may be healed. The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man availeth much.”
Protector,
I’m confused. You state that Scripture tells us that “we may confess our sins directly to God”, and then you cite Scripture in an attempt to bolster your claim. Yet, your Scripture reference doesn’t say “confess your sins directly to God” – it says “confess your faults to one another”!
There are two significant problems here, that I would like you to address:
First, your assertion of confessing directly to God fails, if it relies on your quoted Scripture passage. James doesn’t call for confession to God, but confession to one another! Are you saying then, that Scripturally speaking, we should confess to one another and then ask each other to pray directly to God? 'Cause that’s a whole 'nother thing, and leads to a completely different set of problems!
Second, the remedy that confession to one another seeks isn’t
forgiveness of sins, but
healing! These are two distinct goals, and cannot be conflated! Forgiveness of sins speaks to absolution from
past acts, while healing speaks to being made whole in the present for the sake of the future! After all, when Jesus was presented with the blind and the lame, He did both things – not only one – and when he did them, it was obvious that the two were distinct actions! See Mark chapter 2 – Christ healed and He forgave sins, and these were totally distinct actions on His part; Christ made quite a point of asserting that the two were not the same thing (although they both pointed to His divinity)! In the Scripture passage you reference, however, James speaks only about healing, not forgiveness! Could it be that James was ignorant of the healing of the paralytic? Could it be that he was unaware of the distinction between ‘healing’ and ‘forgiveness’? After all, there were many who were ‘miracle healers’ in Jesus’ day; what set Jesus apart was His divine ability to forgive sins! (After all, the Pharisees realized that this amounted to a declaration of divinity, and crucified Jesus for his ‘blasphemy against God’!) Would James, as a devout Jewish Christian, have missed this distinction? Hardly…
So, given that your post attempted to demonstrate that confession to a priest is unnecessary and that we are instructed to go directly to God… but given that your post seems to fail to demonstrate either of these assertions… do you have any alternate Scripture citations that you would like to place before us as proof of your assertions?
Blessings,
G.