Here’s my reasoning: in simpler times, when people didn’t have as many different kinds of food available to them, for many (if not most) meat was a luxury, relatively rare compared to today, and very poor people couldn’t afford it at all. Yet giving it up was considered penitential. Would it not have made more sense in those times, for penance to have a “bite” to it (no pun intended), to give up a common staple food — such as bread, fruit, or vegetables — than to require people to abstain from a food that they didn’t eat that much anyway?
By the same token, today meat is commonplace and many people feel like they can’t really eat without it — “if there’s no meat, it’s not really a meal”. Prescribing abstinence from meat is a real penance for those whose palates are used to it. In our times, it makes perfect sense. But why in pre-modern times?
By the same token, today meat is commonplace and many people feel like they can’t really eat without it — “if there’s no meat, it’s not really a meal”. Prescribing abstinence from meat is a real penance for those whose palates are used to it. In our times, it makes perfect sense. But why in pre-modern times?