M
mwncheesehead
Guest
When I wrote my post, I had in mind the necessity of the male’s ejaculation that makes it a completed act of intercourse. I should have said that it’s not morally necessary for the woman to climax as it is for her husband. She should climax if she chooses and her husband should assist, but if she doesn’t, it’s still a completed act of intercourse if her husband finishes vaginally.What a strange thing to say.