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guanophore
Guest
It is your opinion that it is opinion, therefore you are entilted to it.“Infallible Magesterium” is a doctrine based on opinion, not “inspiration.” It is unique to Roman Catholicism. It is what makes RCism, “Romanism.” I’m not at all trying to be offensive with that terminology here, just accurate in terminology.
Of course the Orthodox do. This concept appears consistently through the first ten centuries of the Church. At that point, a schism occurred, but the Orthodox never abandoned the commitment to sacred tradition. They don’t call it “magesterium” they call it the Apostolic Teaching of the Fathers, but it is the same. The Protestants rebelled against this doctrine, which is what makes them protestants. The concept does remain in many denominations, though. You can find it when you look at where the doctrines of faith are written, and the source to which appeals are made when disagreements occur.Has Eastern “Catholicism” ever accepted that doctrine? Do your “Protestant brethren?” It is not universally accepted, nor ever was.
I will accept that your understanding of the history of the Christian Church is limited in this matter.It is taught by the Roman church alone and accepted by those who place themselves under its authority alone.
This is just being narrow minded, Apo. Literary criticism can be conducted on any peice of literature according to any number of different hermeneutical “glasses”. I was trained to use protestant glasses initially. What I did not know at the time is that they were “glasses”. After further study, I realized that there are other ways to approach the writings. All are presuppositions. The key is being able to identify ones presuppositions, and set them aside, or be able to use a different set. Anyway, why would one NOT want to presuppose that the early fathers, being closer to the events and teachings than we are, have a more accurate perception of them?Hence my challenge regarding a RC’s ability to approach either the Scriptures or the early writing free from presuppositions.
Maybe you are like I was, and don’t realize that the hermeneutic method you are using and think of as “proper” is just another set of glasses?There’s a difference between a proper hermeneutics and an outside “source” to “guard and guide your understanding.”
I cannot presume to know what he was thinking about at the time. But, it seems clear from all the differences in understanding that there are many things in scripture that are difficult to understand. We can’t ALL be right, or ALL be wrong!Peter says SOME things Paul had written. And this was in the context of eschatology (cf. 2 Pet. 3:11-13), which even today the untaught and unstable distort (2 Pet. 3:16). Peter in no way teaches that Paul’s writing on soteriology are hard to understand.
What makes you think there is a difference? the reformers did not want to believe what the Catholic Church was teaching, so they interpreted the scriptures differently so that things would not be so difficult. I realize part of it was politcs, too. But, if the Catholic way did not seem more difficult for you, you would be Catholic! You can’t because the doctrinal differences are a point of unbelief for you.Those who distort those writings do so out of unbelief, not because they’re difficult.
I gave two examples above that are found in the NT, but are not in the canon.Which writings of the so-called “early fathers” do you consider part of the “current” canon of N.T. Scripture?
No, the canon is closed. And no, the authority of the magesterium comes from Jesus, through the apostolic succession.By the structure of your sentence are you suggesting that Rome (upon its own declared authority) might add to the N.T. canon?
I believe that we are drifting off topic, unless you are willing to explore how the writings of the early fathers relate to the concept of salvation.