M
Milliardo
Guest
Answer: no. God wrote the Bible? He inspired me to write it; or more precisely, He inspired men to compile it. Which Councils were convened to compile the Bible then?Don’t you know?![]()
Answer: no. God wrote the Bible? He inspired me to write it; or more precisely, He inspired men to compile it. Which Councils were convened to compile the Bible then?Don’t you know?![]()
Ah, there are also those who do. The point I am making is that doing good does not come from being “saved”; indeed, if that is the case, then non-believers do only evil. But even believers do, and there are non-Christians who do good. Point being then that doing things does not necessarily solely come from belief in Christ, but it is a decisive act made by an individual who is moved by compassion and love–the very basis of obedience, and one that Jesus sees as the actuation of faith. Again, the premise stands–faith without works is dead. So it is that a Christian, no matter how much he professes Christ as his Saviour, if he is the same lying, cheating, gossiping leech that he is–then salvation is never for him, and his Judgment will be such that he will find himself gnashing his teeth in bitterness. Not really that hard to understand.So Catholics never do those things that you described; is that correct?
Cool, which book was yours? Hebrews? :bowdown2:Answer: no. God wrote the Bible? He inspired me to write it;
Show me specifically what God wrote. None, aside from the Ten Commandments. All of the books were written by men; even with the Ten Commandments, He acted through Moses. God speaks through men. Ah, again, it isn’t very hard to understand now, is it? So, as pointed out, which is your cup of tea–did the Bible fell out of the sky, or do you believe “it’s been there all along”?Cool, which book was yours? Hebrews? :bowdown2:
Jesus said: If you love me, you will obey what I command. (John 14:15 )What does that mean to you? being faithful to the commandments so as to obtain eternal life. Do we get to heaven by keeping commandments?
And what does scripture say?Excerpt from 1345 in the CCC:
“Then we all rise together and offer prayers* for ourselves . . .and for all others, wherever they may be, so that we may be found righteous by our life and actions, and faithful to the commandments, so as to obtain eternal salvation.”
What does that mean to you? being faithful to the commandments so as to obtain eternal life. Do we get to heaven by keeping commandments?
Here’s some more scripture pertaining to your question":Excerpt from 1345 in the CCC:
“Then we all rise together and offer prayers* for ourselves . . .and for all others, wherever they may be, so that we may be found righteous by our life and actions, and faithful to the commandments, so as to obtain eternal salvation.”
What does that mean to you? being faithful to the commandments so as to obtain eternal life. Do we get to heaven by keeping commandments?
After all that has been said on this thread this kind of comment should be totally ignored. We have demonstrated over and over again that all is by grace. Even our part of accepting God’s gracious gift of faith is prompted by grace. Our love of God, our trust in God, our endurance, our obedience, and our hope in God is by way of grace.So then, ultimately, salvation hinges on YOUR performance.
I did support it. The verse in James says Abraham was, past tense, justified by his works. You are really dodging the issue here by asking me to support it, because I presented a point of evidence earlier - the tense of the verb - and your response contained no argument but merely a rejection of my conclusion.The bolded and underlined above brings to mind the axiom, easy to do, is easy to say. It’s easy to say what you have said, it is another thing to support it.
If I am not mistaken, my argument was based on the fact that James was essentially written by Jesus through the Holy Spirit. I apologize if I did not in fact make this point clear at first. My point is that Jesus would not say one thing in His life and in inspiring the Holy Gospels and then another when inspiring James’ epistle.What you are doing here is lifting Jesus’ words from their context, and using them to scold James; need I remind you that Jesus is behind the writing of James epistle? Your argument ignores the words of James, you show me…I’ll show you…you see…you see.
James attributes justification to both faith and to works. The verse says works did something. The difficulty is in asserting that the overall thrust of the passage is to identify ‘saving faith’ or that James is speaking of some particular type of faith. As Jimmy Akin has demonstrated in his somewhat well known work URL=“here”]Justification in James 2, James is just talking about bare faith, not dead faith or living faith.He does, in that verse, connect the two, and attributes justification to each; but he does so in harmony with the overall thrust of the passage: Can a faith without works save? Again, the idea of being able to identify a saving faith is the point of the passage; it is clear from Gen 15, that Abraham was justified before God years prior to Isaac, and on the basis of the future promise of Isaac.
First, in 2:14, James asks: “What does it profit, my brethren, if a man says he has faith but has not works? Can faith save him?” Here James shows us that the kind of profit he is interested in is salvation. The kind of faith plus works James is talking about profits toward salvation, which pertains to justification before God, not men. His question, “Can faith save him?” sets the tone for the whole discussion (as it should since it is in the first verse of it). The subject at hand is one’s relationship with God, not one’s reputation among men.
Second, in 2:15-16, James says: “If a brother or sister is ill-clad and in lack of daily food, and one of you says to them, ‘Go in peace, be warmed and filled,’ without giving them the things needed for the body, what does it profit?” Here James repeats the term “profit” from his previous argument, and again the subject is actual, substantive profit–having one’s needs taken care of–rather than a non-substantive profit of a justification before men.
Third, in 2:17, as a conclusion to vv. 15-16, James says: “So faith by itself, if it has no works, is dead.” Here the term “dead” is introduced as an antonym for “profit.” James thus says that faith without works is dead, the ultimate form of impotence, the ultimate lack of power with respect to the “profit” he has discussed in the preceding three verses. He says faith without works “is dead,” not “dead before men.”
Fourth, to show the impotence of faith alone toward one’s relationship with God, James asks in 2:19, “You believe that God is one; you do well. Even the demons believe–and shudder.” Demons have the faith James is talking about – intellectual assent to the truths of God – but it does not stop them from shuddering at the prospect of God’s wrath. This is what James has in mind. He is not saying that demons shudder at the prospect of not having a good reputation among men or that because they have faith alone they lack justification before men. His focus is on the impotence of the demon’s faith to help them before God.
Fifth, in verse 20 James asks, “Do you want to be shown, you shallow man, that faith apart from works is barren?” Here the term “barren” is taken as the antonym to “profit” and the synonym to “dead” in the preceding verses, meaning that this introductory statement to the arguments which follow shows that the arguments to come are to be interpreted in the light of what has come before, which had definitely not been dealing with “justification before men.”
Sixth, in verse 21, James says, “Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he offered his son Isaac upon the altar?” This absolutely cannot be read as some kind of justification before men since Abraham and Isaac were the only ones up there on the mount and their drama was played for God’s benefit. He was the witness, not Abraham’s contemporaries.
Seventh, in verse 23a, James says, “[A]nd the scripture was fulfilled which says, ‘Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness.’” Who in that Scripture did the reckoning? Was it men or God? It was not men, but God. Thus justification before God.
Eighth, in 23b James states: “[A]nd he was called the friend of God.” Important question: Who called Abraham God’s friend? God himself did: “But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, the offspring of Abraham, my friend” (Isa. 41:8). Thus justification before God.
Ninth, in verse 26, James says: “For as the body apart from the spirit is dead, so faith apart from works is dead.” Again, James does not say that the body appears dead before men but that the body is dead without the spirit.
Any one of these reasons alone would be enough to disqualify the interpretation that James is not talking about the same kind of justification as Paul was.Tenth, the whole “justification before men” argument rests on a linguistic slight of hand trick where one phrase is used to mean something completely different. By speaking of “justification before men” and “justification before God,” the argument creates the illusion that the same kind of justification is being spoken of in both cases, simply the audience is different, being men in one case and God in the other.
The assertion you made is that in Romans 2 St. Paul is demonstrating what would be necessary to be saved - following the law exactly. This is impossible, so he turns moves forward to demonstrate the need for faith in Christ.(continued from post #389)
It does not, and you’ll see why in a moment.
We agree: it is impossible for one to be justified by law-keeping.
But, is it impossible for one ***to think that they can be justified by law-keeping?***Philippians 3:4-10
4 although I myself might have confidence even in the flesh. If anyone else has a mind to put confidence in the flesh, I far more:
5 circumcised the eighth day, of the nation of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of Hebrews; as to the Law, a Pharisee;
6 as to zeal, a persecutor of the church; as to the righteousness which is in the Law, found blameless.That is the point which Paul is beginning to destroy in Romans 2, and, by the end of the epistle, he has laid to rest the folly of salvation by works.
As Robert Sungenis points out in Not by Faith Alone, the Scriptures do not contain a single instance of the prhase “the Scripture was fulfilled” that takes on the meaning being suggested here. The phrase always refers to a prophetic fulfillment. By this, James is looking at Genesis 15:6 as not only a statement about what was occuring then, but also as a prophecy of the future. In Genesis 22, Abraham again believed God and it was credited to him with righteousness. In fact, this interpretation is even further proven by the immediate context. Verse 22 states that Abraham’s faith was active along with his works, and so in verse 23 James refers to this fulfillment in regards to Abraham’s faith, while in verse 24 he refers to his works. Notice the approach James takes:Here ya go, sandusky, the three occasions for Abraham - they bring it up each time. In James - it states…that the scripture might be fulfilled which saith…Abraham believed God and it was counted to Him for righteousness.
James 2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
It is not saying that he was justified at that moment…
His faith…whether in Genesis 15:6 was the basis for his righteousness but he was not justified on three occasions here. Please note…this progressive justification of Abraham was not shown in the OT…it is just that the illustrations in the New Testament use different parts of the life of Abraham to show how he had faith which is the basis for justification. The only place in the OT that says - Abraham believed God and is was counted to him for righteousness was at the first promise of God and the subsequent belief of Abraham in that promise.
What is the meaning of this scripture?
The Greek reads "those that are being sanctified.Hebrews 10:14 KJV 14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.
Quite apart from anything else (& there is aThe key word in your post is discipline. You mistakenly assume that means atoning, or expiatory sufferings; it does not; it means discipline (cf Dt 8:5; 2 Sam 7:14; Pro 13:24; 19:18; 23:13ff).
http://bestsmileys.com/movingeyes/2.gifA term used by James White.
:whacky: :tsktsk:And me.
You know the scriptures; what do they say?Rejecting the Church to rejecting JESUS is a bit of a leap, dont ya think?![]()
All I was asking you is why then do we still suffer for our sins when Jesus died for all our sins?Forgive me, Odell, but I’m not following you.
You seem to be attaching some significance to a believer suffering for his sins; tell me what you mean by “we suffer for our sins,” and why that is significant to you, if indeed it is.
You have to admit it is not a term that is commonly found in Catholic conversation.Aren’t Catholics born-again Christians?