I really don’t want to get into particulars RomanCrusader because this is a family show, but the acts that homosexuals perform are considered acceptable if a married man and woman perform them with each other, as long as they are only part of (i.e. leading up to) the unitive and procreative act.
When a man and women perform those acts on each other, it is still a man and women.
I would like to be sure something isn’t getting get lost here. Some grave sins are graver than others. Here is the CCC to support this:
Actually, when people have premarital sex, they are sleeping with whoever their partner had previously slept with (from a disease or potential disease standpoint) so, if you sleep with someone who has had multiple partners, then you become potentially exposed to all of the diseases of the prior partners. This is true for hetero/homo sexual relatoinships.
Right. Homosexual acts are a mortal sin, but you said the acts are bodily mutilation. If they are permissable between a man and a woman, that can not be so. It has nothing to do with political correctness…just logic.
Two men having intercourse is bodily mutilation though. It is very different from a man and women engaged in the same act.
unless they are not married, and it can be viewed the same way. Sin is sin–whether it’s a man and woman having premarital sex, or two men having sex…it’s sinful to God.
That was actually me who stated that, but you get that
Well, as has been pointed out, the same mechanisms can be and are employed between a man and a woman and are considered sexual acts. Certainly meets one of the definitions of sexual intercourse as given by Merriam Webster online.
But they are both mortal sins. Therefore equally damaging if unrepented and equally forgivable if one repents.
Yet a mortal sin is a mortal sin. And it can either be repented of or not be repented of. If a previous homosexual repents of his acts he has a chance to go to heaven. If a heterosexually fornicating couple does not repent before death they will go to hell. This is not like well all the heterosexuals will go to heaven despite their sins but the homosexuals regardless of repentance will go to hell.
Agreed. It doesn’t matter which mortal sin you did, they all function the same way concerning heaven and hell and repentance, etc. Also, it doesn’t matter if you did 1 or 300 mortal sins, one good confession wipes them out. That’s one of the really nice things about it, no matter how far you are away, as soon as you turn around, there you can see the Father, glad to have you back. (You know, prodigal son a long way off, etc…)
They seem to be either “butch” in nature or “femme” in nature. In my observations.It is a useful word. I used to just ask…“is that guy gay or just European?”(My apologies to my European friends, but there are a lot of metrosexuals in Europe.
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Seriously though, not all gay men are a) effiminate or b) stylish.
with the second sentence that is.I think there is a mistake here. The word “homosexual” above should have been “heterosexual”. Am I right, rlg?
this is why we invented condoms -.-
A married couple where one of the spouses has an infectious disease will abstain.
I agree with you Pug. But I need an enlightenment about something. If there are two kinds of sins: mortal and venial, and mortal sin is also forgivable when the sinner confesses his sins, what do we call that sin mentioned by Jesus in Mathew 12:32 which is not forgivable “either in this world or in the world to come.”?
I’ve never read anywhere that blasphemy against the Holy Spirit had anything to do with sexual sin. Now, if a person has reached the level of existence where they would blaspheme the Holy Spirit, I can believe that person would have a much lower tolerance for committing any other kind of mortal sin.
So, is there a name to that kind of sin mentioned by Jesus in Mathew 12:32?