The excerpt maintains the following points:
“
Homosexual Inclination Is Not Itself a Sin”
“
To the extent that a homosexual tendency or inclination is not subject to one’s free will, one is not morally culpable for that tendency.”
"
The homosexual inclination is objectively disordered, i.e., it is an inclination that predisposes one toward what is truly not good for the human person.
Now, we know that subject excerpt is simply an opinion of said US Bishops. With due respect to them, let us analyze the excerpt.
The excerpt begins with the declaration:
Homosexual inclination is not itself a sin. Then they proceeded to back-up the declaration with a very “playing safe concept”, saying, “
To the extent that a homosexual tendency or inclination is not subject to one’s free will,”. Clearly, the declaration rests on the assumption that homosexual inclination is beyond man’s free will to control. If so, then it could be said that the homosexual is a slave of homosexual inclination, he has no power over it, hence he is excused of his inclination. This opinion, in my opinion too, is false.
Inclination itself is defined as,
"
inclination
n 1: an attitude of mind especially one that favors one
alternative over others; "he had an inclination to give
up too easily"; “a tendency to be too strict” [syn: disposition,[/COLOR]
tendency]
dict.die.net/inclination/
It is clear from the above definition that it is an attitude of mind, and that there are alternatives. Man can choose which among the alternatives he should set his mind to.
After they said that homosexual inclination is not a sin, the said bishops put forward the Church teaching that “
homosexual inclination is objectively disordered”, but in respecting that teaching, they however softened down its being disordered with their personal theory of why it is considered disordered saying, “
it is an inclination that predisposes one toward what is truly not good for the human person.” True indeed, it predisposes one toward what is truly not good. But is that really the reason of the Church for considering homosexual inclination as objectively disordered? No. For all we know, opinion could also be put forward that the reason why it is considered disordered is not only its predisposing effect but its being a state of mind which desires for sexual pleasure with the same sex. That act of desiring (for such) is morally disordered, hence that internal act is a sin.
The human person, of course, is always valuable and to be treated always with dignity. The sinner is distinct and different from the sin. Man must hate sin, but not the sinner.
The Bishops are correct in their statements IMHO. “Objectively disordered” does not mean “sin.” And, “inclinations” does not equal an active “desire” from free will. We don’t have control over our inclinations. What we do have control over is our reaction to those inclinations (entertaining thoughts, physical actions). With prayer, therapy, etc., the inclinations may eventually go away or subside, but they themselves are not sin. Through self-mastery, however, we can control our reaction to inclinations. That is what the Church calls us to do.
You are, of course, allowed to reject the analysis of the Bishops. However, I have asked you several times for analysis from anyone with authority in the Church that matches your opinions, and you have supplied none.
Their “attraction” is to what men, and…sodomy ie not normal, healthy or a sane thing. Not to mention women who dress, talk, walk, and act like men or men that do vice versa. That’s psychological and it’s frankly demonic (many start to look like men and some men like women because they have given demons a spot in their body to reek havoc)
