Against final causality

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We all know that our mind is only aware of physical reality when we are awake. It does not cease to exist when we are asleep or unconscious.
Our consciousness mind exist in state of sleep. It does not receive any stimulus from subconscious mind and external world since our conscious brain is in state of sleep. Our conscious and subconscious minds are always awake.
 
Still all sounds rather strange to me.

Indeed, the whole idea of a subconscious decision sounds rather like an oxymoron: a decision not consciously made probably would not count as a “decision” at all for most people. Such a thing sounds rather more like the result of instinct or habit than “mind”; but presumably all mind needs in some sense to be conscious especially if it is going to be able to “make a decision”, which ordinarily involves a discrimination and a judgement. So the subconscious mind itself would need to be in some sense conscious to be aware of the possibilities to choose from and choose one such possibility that results in an action. But here we find still more problems, because who is to say at this point that the subconscious mind itself doesn’t have a subconscious mind? Certainly it cannot be excluded as a possibility at this point, seeing as any attempt to do so would threaten the original idea of a subconscious mind in the first place.

However, it should be obvious that actions must have some origin and the decision making process cannot proceed to infinity (otherwise no action would ever result). Still, we are wondering just how many minds a man can seriously be said to have.
All information that we see, hear, know, etc does exist in subconsciousness. These information could be retrieve to consciousness when it is needed for further analysis (logical thinking and wisdom), so in fact it is not strange to leave decision to subconsciousness mind once consciousness mind cannot offer anything more. Moreover instinct and intuition are aspect of subconscious mind that we could depend on them too.

Moreover if all our decisions are based on your consciousness mind then we are agents who just digitize the information. In other world, state of our mind could be known , then the outcome could be predicted which means that you have no free will.
 
All information that we see, hear, know, etc does exist in subconsciousness. These information could be retrieve to consciousness when it is needed for further analysis (logical thinking and wisdom),
So far this just sounds like memory to me.
so in fact it is not strange to leave decision to subconsciousness mind
Okay now that - for me at least - sounds extremely problematic.

I wouldn’t necessarily even leave my personal decisions even to another mind that I am actually conscious of (e.g. yours); but to a mind that I am not even conscious of - well that just sounds irresponsible. Even when leave personal decisions to another we usually make it conditional; e.g., that they are (at least more) expert than us or have our best interests in mind or whatever; but I am at least consciously away of that person’s mind and decision making habits. But of the subconscious mind, by definition, I am not aware of.
why once consciousness mind cannot offer anything more. Moreover instinct and intuition are aspect of subconscious mind that we could depend on them too.

Moreover if all our decisions are based on your consciousness mind then we are agents who just digitize the information.
Alright that sounds like a rather sweeping statement to me. My decision to use the words I have in communicating with you - why does that involve a reduction? I mean, why does that mean I am ‘just an agent that digitizes information’?
In other world, state of our mind could be known , then the outcome could be predicted which means that you have no free will.
I don’t think that follows. I know many of the important decisions that George Washington freely made - some decisions were good, some bad depending on the situation - but that hardly means America’s first President didn’t have free will simply because I know the decisions he would ultimately freely make; I mean, even if I time-warped into the past and was his contemporary and an observer/spectator, my knowing what General or President Washington will actually do or say does not negate his free will or change the fact that he was freely making them.
 
Hey guys, I’m back. I figured the thread had died since no one responded for a couple days, but I guess it got revived. My last post was a couple pages ago.
You guys are getting way off topic here. This is supposed to be about the highly absurd notion of final causality.
 
You sure got this right! 👍

More relevant to the original topic:
I too have a beef with the concept of final causality. If it is posited as having actual causal relevance, then it seems frivolous and stupid.
Efficient causes are by definition all that is needed to explain causality. To say that anything which moves as if it had intrinsic intentionality must have it would be foolish and idiotic. Also, keep in mind (not that I expect any of you to have figured this out) that physical things don’t have inherent existence. They only exist insofar as they are perceived. And here’s to prove it:
Imagine the computer you are using to read this post.
Now imagine what your visual field would look like if it contained that computer.
The “two” images are the same, aren’t they?
Thus, to imagine a physical thing is only to imagine a perception of that thing.
Therefore, physical things only exist insofar as they are perceived. The physical world is actually a lot like the matrix (except there’s no physical reality outside of it). And if physical things don’t even inherently exist, then how could they have inherent purpose, goal, or directedness?
Here is how the Catechism would answer you: " V. GOD CARRIES OUT HIS PLAN: DIVINE PROVIDENCE

302 Creation has its own goodness and proper perfection, but it did not spring forth complete from the hands of the Creator. the universe was created “in a state of journeying” (in statu viae) toward an ultimate perfection yet to be attained, to which God has destined it. We call “divine providence” the dispositions by which God guides his creation toward this perfection:

By his providence God protects and governs all things which he has made, “reaching mightily from one end of the earth to the other, and ordering all things well”. For “all are open and laid bare to his eyes”, even those things which are yet to come into existence through the free action of creatures.161

303 The witness of Scripture is unanimous that the solicitude of divine providence is concrete and immediate; God cares for all, from the least things to the great events of the world and its history. the sacred books powerfully affirm God’s absolute sovereignty over the course of events: "Our God is in the heavens; he does whatever he pleases."162 and so it is with Christ, “who opens and no one shall shut, who shuts and no one opens”.163 As the book of Proverbs states: "Many are the plans in the mind of a man, but it is the purpose of the LORD that will be established."164

304 And so we see the Holy Spirit, the principal author of Sacred Scripture, often attributing actions to God without mentioning any secondary causes. This is not a “primitive mode of speech”, but a profound way of recalling God’s primacy and absolute Lordship over history and the world,165 and so of educating his people to trust in him. the prayer of the Psalms is the great school of this trust.166

305 Jesus asks for childlike abandonment to the providence of our heavenly Father who takes care of his children’s smallest needs: "Therefore do not be anxious, saying, “What shall we eat?” or “What shall we drink?”. . . Your heavenly Father knows that you need them all. But seek first his kingdom and his righteousness, and all these things shall be yours as well."167

Providence and secondary causes

306 God is the sovereign master of his plan. But to carry it out he also makes use of his creatures’ co-operation. This use is not a sign of weakness, but rather a token of almighty God’s greatness and goodness. For God grants his creatures not only their existence, but also the dignity of acting on their own, of being causes and principles for each other, and thus of co-operating in the accomplishment of his plan.

307 To human beings God even gives the power of freely sharing in his providence by entrusting them with the responsibility of “subduing” the earth and having dominion over it.168 God thus enables men to be intelligent and free causes in order to complete the work of creation, to perfect its harmony for their own good and that of their neighbours. Though often unconscious collaborators with God’s will, they can also enter deliberately into the divine plan by their actions, their prayers and their sufferings.169 They then fully become “God’s fellow workers” and co-workers for his kingdom.170

308 The truth that God is at work in all the actions of his creatures is inseparable from faith in God the Creator. God is the first cause who operates in and through secondary causes: "For God is at work in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure."171 Far from diminishing the creature’s dignity, this truth enhances it. Drawn from nothingness by God’s power, wisdom and goodness, it can do nothing if it is cut off from its origin, for "without a Creator the creature vanishes."172 Still less can a creature attain its ultimate end without the help of God’s grace.173 "

Dumb and inanimate creatures follow the directions God has placed in their natures. Thus as agents they tend ( i.e. have intentionality) toward the ends God wants for them. If there were no end they would not act, nor would anything else.

P.S. " Matrixes ? " So life is just one big matrix. :eek:

Linus2nd
 
Intentionality doesn’t have to be intrinsic. The word really just means “meaning”, which can be derived.
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Linusthe2nd:
P.S. " Matrixes ? " So life is just one big matrix. :eek:
First, I said this about the universe, not about life.
Second, when I compared the universe to the matrix I included a parenthesized clause p(name removed by moderator)ointing a very important difference.
 
Intentionality doesn’t have to be intrinsic. The word really just means “meaning”, which can be derived.
In philosophy it refers to the behavior of things, animate and inanimate, which shows that their actions are directed toward an end. Thus their behavior is by nature directed or " intended. "
First, I said this about the universe, not about life.
You are saying then that the physical universe moves according to a pattern determined by a mathematical formula of the matrix type?

Second, when I compared the universe to the matrix I included a parenthesized clause p(name removed by moderator)ointing a very important difference.

O.K., here is your statement:

" Thus, to imagine a physical thing is only to imagine a perception of that thing.
Therefore, physical things only exist insofar as they are perceived. The physical world is actually a lot like the matrix (except there’s no physical reality outside of it). And if physical things don’t even inherently exist, then how could they have inherent purpose, goal, or directedness? "

So you are saying that there is no physical reality outside the matrix? In your mind, is that the same as saying there is no physical reality outside the universe? But then you change gears and say that " physical things don’t even inherently exist ? " And that is the basis for denying " purpose, goal, or directedness? "

Sounds to me like most of your universe is illusory. If that were true then you would be right.

So, are you just spoofing or are you serious?

But you said it didn’t apply to life. Aren’t you being contradictory?

How do you square that with your Catholic Faith?

If computer programming does all that to ones mind, I’m glad I know nothing about it.

Linus2nd
 
So far this just sounds like memory to me.
No, subconscious mind is responsible for collective mind process counting on instinct, intuition, mode, feeling and outcome of logical thinking made in your conscious mind.
I wouldn’t necessarily even leave my personal decisions even to another mind that I am actually conscious of (e.g. yours); but to a mind that I am not even conscious of - well that just sounds irresponsible. Even when leave personal decisions to another we usually make it conditional; e.g., that they are (at least more) expert than us or have our best interests in mind or whatever; but I am at least consciously away of that person’s mind and decision making habits. But of the subconscious mind, by definition, I am not aware of.
This process unfortunately is not up to you. Our decisions could be largely affected by logical thinking that we are conscious about but there are several other factors that have impact on our decision and these could not be measured or be used by conscious mind to perform a decision, like our mode etc.
Alright that sounds like a rather sweeping statement to me. My decision to use the words I have in communicating with you - why does that involve a reduction? I mean, why does that mean I am ‘just an agent that digitizes information’?
Your feeling, desires, emotion, and many other things affect your decision on a situation. For example if you feel lazy, you probably wouldn’t write me, and this type of decision is made by subconscious mind. Moreover I believe that the place of free will is in subconscious mind for the reason I describe, namely if all our decisions were made by consciousness mind then would turn to an agent who just digitize information.
I don’t think that follows. I know many of the important decisions that George Washington freely made - some decisions were good, some bad depending on the situation - but that hardly means America’s first President didn’t have free will simply because I know the decisions he would ultimately freely make; I mean, even if I time-warped into the past and was his contemporary and an observer/spectator, my knowing what General or President Washington will actually do or say does not negate his free will or change the fact that he was freely making them.
It follows since the sate of conscious mind is the state of knowledge and facts. If we assume that our decision made solely by facts then the sole knowledge of them would lead to conclusion and we don’t need the free will.
 
No, subconscious mind is responsible for collective mind process counting on instinct, intuition, mode, feeling and outcome of logical thinking made in your conscious mind.

This process unfortunately is not up to you. Our decisions could be largely affected by logical thinking that we are conscious about but there are several other factors that have impact on our decision and these could not be measured or be used by conscious mind to perform a decision, like our mode etc.

Your feeling, desires, emotion, and many other things affect your decision on a situation. For example if you feel lazy, you probably wouldn’t write me, and this type of decision is made by subconscious mind. Moreover I believe that the place of free will is in subconscious mind for the reason I describe, namely if all our decisions were made by consciousness mind then would turn to an agent who just digitize information.

It follows since the sate of conscious mind is the state of knowledge and facts. If we assume that our decision made solely by facts then the sole knowledge of them would lead to conclusion and we don’t need the free will.
Hogwash.

There are just so many egregious howlers in your post that I cannot seriously believe you know what you are talking about. I will leave it to you to try to figure out whether or not and to what extent my subconscious influenced my judgement and decision to declare what you have written hogwash.
 
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Linusthe2nd:
In philosophy it refers to the behavior of things, animate and inanimate, which shows that their actions are directed toward an end. Thus their behavior is by nature directed or " intended. "
No, pretty sure it just refers to the meaning conveyed by a thing.
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Linusthe2nd:
You are saying then that the physical universe moves according to a pattern determined by a mathematical formula of the matrix type?

I didn’t mean the mathematical kind of matrix.

Second, when I compared the universe to the matrix I included a parenthesized clause p(name removed by moderator)ointing a very important difference.
O.K., here is your statement:

" Thus, to imagine a physical thing is only to imagine a perception of that thing.
Therefore, physical things only exist insofar as they are perceived. The physical world is actually a lot like the matrix (except there’s no physical reality outside of it). And if physical things don’t even inherently exist, then how could they have inherent purpose, goal, or directedness? "

So you are saying that there is no physical reality outside the matrix? In your mind, is that the same as saying there is no physical reality outside the universe? But then you change gears and say that " physical things don’t even inherently exist ? " And that is the basis for denying " purpose, goal, or directedness? "

No, there isn’t, and yes, that is the same. It is not “changing gears” for me to declare the principle of idealist metaphysics, in fact this principle fits quite well what I have been saying. Yes, that is the basis: if they don’t have inherent existence, then surely nothing about them is inherent, much less their “final cause”.

Sounds to me like most of your universe is illusory. If that were true then you would be right.

It isn’t entirely accurate to call it an illusion.

So, are you just spoofing or are you serious?

Have you ever debates with someone that won’t take you seriously? It’s really insulting, isn’t it?

But you said it didn’t apply to life. Aren’t you being contradictory?

I did not say it doesn’t apply to life, I was saying that life itself is not an illusion at all, whereas there is a limited sense in which the universe is illusory.

How do you square that with your Catholic Faith?

It doesn’t clash with my catholic faith.

If computer programming does all that to ones mind, I’m glad I know nothing about it.
I assure you programming had nothing to do with my journey toward this discovery.

PS: Should have asked this long ago:
What do you even mean by saying that final cause is “inherent”? If final cause is just the purpose for which it was made, then final causality is really not about the object at all, but rather the designer, in which case it’s by definition not inherent.
 
We all know that our mind is only aware of physical reality when we are awake. It does not cease to exist when we are asleep or unconscious.
You seem to be contradicting yourself…

Do you think we are not aware of our physical environment when we are awake?
 
Whoops… looks like my quote BB codes didn’t exactly work out in that last post. Sorry for any confusion this may cause.
 
No, pretty sure it just refers to the meaning conveyed by a thing.
Well perhaps in your " idealist " philosophy, but in Thomism it means that the nature of things is to tend ( tendere, infin, present tense, indictave, active, lat., to tend toward ) toward an end. You should try Thomas and stop fooling with idealism. You can’t even communicate with people meaningfully because, to them, it is like talking to a constantly moving shadow. Its like talking to someone from one of those Eastern cults that one never can make head or tail of.
O.K., here is your statement:
" Thus, to imagine a physical thing is only to imagine a perception of that thing.
Therefore, physical things only exist insofar as they are perceived. The physical world is actually a lot like the matrix (except there’s no physical reality outside of it). And if physical things don’t even inherently exist, then how could they have inherent purpose, goal, or directedness? "
So you are saying that there is no physical reality outside the matrix? In your mind, is that the same as saying there is no physical reality outside the universe? But then you change gears and say that " physical things don’t even inherently exist ? " And that is the basis for denying " purpose, goal, or directedness? "
No, there isn’t, and yes, that is the same. It is not “changing gears” for me to declare the principle of idealist metaphysics, in fact this principle fits quite well what I have been saying. Yes, that is the basis: if they don’t have inherent existence, then surely nothing about them is inherent, much less their “final cause”.
Sounds to me like most of your universe is illusory. If that were true then you would be right.
It isn’t entirely accurate to call it an illusion.
So, are you just spoofing or are you serious?
Have you ever debates with someone that won’t take you seriously? It’s really insulting, isn’t it?
Yes, it is very hard to take an Idealist seriously. I could hardly take Plato’s world seriously. I have the same trouble with atheists, they are living in a dream world, a world that couldn’t possibly exist, based on their premises.
But you said it didn’t apply to life. Aren’t you being contradictory?
I did not say it doesn’t apply to life, I was saying that life itself is not an illusion at all, whereas there is a limited sense in which the universe is illusory.
This is your quote from post 38: " Therefore, physical things only exist insofar as they are perceived. The physical world is actually a lot like the matrix (except there’s no physical reality outside of it). And if physical things don’t even inherently exist, then how could they have inherent purpose, goal, or directedness? "

This clearly contradicts what you have just said. You are clearly saying that the reality outside our minds have no reality unless they are perceived. This is a radical form of Idealism. Are you then identifying yourself with Descartes or Kant?

You have not made it clear what the difference is. Is your " philosophy" something you are designing yourself or is it a borrowed philosophy?
How do you square that with your Catholic Faith?
It doesn’t clash with my catholic faith.
I don’t see how a serious Catholic could have your views - as you have stated them. The Catholic Church teaches that God created a real world, he did not create an illusion or a partial illusion. This is also reinforced by the Scriptures. Nothing in Scriptures supports anything like an illusory creation.
If computer programming does all that to ones mind, I’m glad I know nothing about it.
I assure you programming had nothing to do with my journey toward this discovery.
PS: Should have asked this long ago:
What do you even mean by saying that final cause is “inherent”? If final cause is just the purpose for which it was made, then final causality is really not about the object at all, but rather the designer, in which case it’s by definition not inherent.
I never said that the final cause was " inherent " in anything. The final cause is the purpose for which substances were made, for the God is the final end of all creation. The final cause then is about both the substances created and about God Himself, the final cause. He creates in the natures of substances the " directions " and powers by which they apply these " directions. " What is inherent in things is not the final cause but the built in tendency toward the final cause.

Linus2nd
 
Hogwash.

There are just so many egregious howlers in your post that I cannot seriously believe you know what you are talking about. I will leave it to you to try to figure out whether or not and to what extent my subconscious influenced my judgement and decision to declare what you have written hogwash.
I know what I am talking about. We can discuss it further if you wish.
 
You seem to be contradicting yourself…

Do you think we are not aware of our physical environment when we are awake?
Mind is a quality that doesn’t need sleep. It conscious part of our brain that gets tired due to electro-chemical activities so it need a rest. When our brain does not sent any stimulus to our conscious mind so we are not aware of our environment. We could however have dreams which doesn’t have anything to do with our conscious brain as what we observe in our dream is different from reality of world surrounding us. What causes the stimulus for our conscious mind when we dream is subject of discussion but if there is non stimulus then we have black sleep.
 
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Linusthe2nd:
Well perhaps in your " idealist " philosophy, but in Thomism it means that the nature of things is to tend ( tendere, infin, present tense, indictave, active, lat., to tend toward ) toward an end.
No, my definition is supported my wikipedia.
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Linusthe2nd:
Yes, it is very hard to take an Idealist seriously. I could hardly take Plato’s world seriously.
If you can’t take a bold assertion seriously, then you should just stop debating with me. This isn’t even by boldest assertion, so if you are so bothered by this one, then perhaps we should agree to ignore eachother.
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Linusthe2nd:
This clearly contradicts what you have just said. You are clearly saying that the reality outside our minds have no reality unless they are perceived. This is a radical form of Idealism. Are you then identifying yourself with Descartes or Kant?
First, one adjustment: I am not saying that only the self exists (solipsism), I am saying that only conscious things exist (in themselves). How does that contradict “what I have just said”?
Also, keep in mind that Descartes was a staunch dualist, not an idealist, so he wouldn’t have agreed with me here.
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Linusthe2nd:
I don’t see how a serious Catholic could have your views - as you have stated them. The Catholic Church teaches that God created a real world, he did not create an illusion or a partial illusion. This is also reinforced by the Scriptures. Nothing in Scriptures supports anything like an illusory creation.
Neither does scripture explicitly say otherwise.
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Linusthe2nd:
You have not made it clear what the difference is. Is your " philosophy" something you are designing yourself or is it a borrowed philosophy?
I figured this out myself. Just like my other super-bold assertion.
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Linusthe2nd:
I never said that the final cause was " inherent " in anything. The final cause is the purpose for which substances were made, for the God is the final end of all creation.
The OP says “A basic philosophical position in the Aristetolian-Thomist tradition is the notion of immanent teleology.” Immanent means inherent, so if you don’t believe in inherent final cause, then we are actually not at odds on this point.
 
No, my definition is supported my wikipedia.
Wikipedia is not an authority on philoslohy and certainly not on Thomism.
If you can’t take a bold assertion seriously, then you should just stop debating with me. This isn’t even by boldest assertion, so if you are so bothered by this one, then perhaps we should agree to ignore eachother.
Don’t flatter yourself. I’m stating the truth for the benefit of possible innocents and other witnesses to truth who expect the truth in a Catholic forum.
First, one adjustment: I am not saying that only the self exists (solipsism), I am saying that only conscious things exist (in themselves). How does that contradict “what I have just said”?
I see that I’m dealing with a Sophist as well. You definitely said that unless the world outside the mind was perceived it did not exist. That is not true. It exists whether we are there to perceive it or not. Your position is unacceptable.
Also, keep in mind that Descartes was a staunch dualist, not an idealist, so he wouldn’t have agreed with me here.
That does not put him outside the Idealist camp.
Neither does scripture explicitly say otherwise.
No one was more a realist that Almighty God. He expected his people to be realists as well. The Israelites certainly were, Christ certainly was, so is the Church.
I figured this out myself. Just like my other super-bold assertion.
Philosophy is not like building a boat in your back yard. You must proceed by certain basic assumptions or self-evident facts. First a real universe exists outside our minds. Secondly, the principle of Non-Contradiction.
The OP says “A basic philosophical position in the Aristetolian-Thomist tradition is the notion of immanent teleology.” Immanent means inherent, so if you don’t believe in inherent final cause, then we are actually not at odds on this point.
That does not mean that the " final cause " is inherent in a created substance. If you would unbend a little and read Aquinas by Edward Feser, you would see that and learn a little Thomistic philosophy as well.

Linus2nd
 
Mind is a quality that doesn’t need sleep.
Our minds are entities not qualities. 🙂
It conscious part of our brain that gets tired due to electro-chemical activities so it need a rest. When our brain does not sent any stimulus to our conscious mind so we are not aware of our environment. We could however have dreams which doesn’t have anything to do with our conscious brain as what we observe in our dream is different from reality of world surrounding us. What causes the stimulus for our conscious mind when we dream is subject of discussion but if there is non stimulus then we have black sleep.
We do not know how our mind interacts with our brain but we do know that we’re not responsible for our thoughts and actions when we are asleep. This suggests that our ability to use our free will and act purposefully only exists when we are aware of our physical surroundings.Our inability to remember everything that occurs in our mind when we are not awake certainly doesn’t prove that it depends entirely on the brain. Whether it needs rest is irrelevant to the question of final causes.
 
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Linusthe2nd:
Wikipedia is not an authority on philoslohy and certainly not on Thomism.
I am not saying that wikipedia can be trusted as to which views are correct, but I think it can be trusted regarding what a label means.
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Linusthe2nd:
Don’t flatter yourself. I’m stating the truth for the benefit of possible innocents and other witnesses to truth who expect the truth in a Catholic forum.
Talk about hypocrisy. You accuse me of flattering myself and then you characterize yourself as stating the truth for the benefit of innocents?
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Linusthe2nd:
I see that I’m dealing with a Sophist as well. You definitely said that unless the world outside the mind was perceived it did not exist. That is not true. It exists whether we are there to perceive it or not. Your position is unacceptable.
Don’t tell me what I did and didn’t say. Also if I am correct about what Sophism is I am probably a stronger opponent of it than you.
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Linusthe2nd:
That does not put him outside the Idealist camp.
Yes, it does. Dualism is the belief that reality consists of two fundamental kinds of substances, Idealism is the belief in only immaterial substances.
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Linusthe2nd:
No one was more a realist that Almighty God. He expected his people to be realists as well. The Israelites certainly were, Christ certainly was, so is the Church.
Care to provide some evidence for this?
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Linusthe2nd:
Philosophy is not like building a boat in your back yard. You must proceed by certain basic assumptions or self-evident facts. First a real universe exists outside our minds. Secondly, the principle of Non-Contradiction.
I did proceed by such. I can support all of my philosophical views through logical argument. And the inherent existence of physicality is not self-evident. Finally, the principle of non-contradiction, while certainly true, is irrelevant.
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Linusthe2nd:
That does not mean that the " final cause " is inherent in a created substance. If you would unbend a little and read Aquinas by Edward Feser, you would see that and learn a little Thomistic philosophy as well.
Yeah, it pretty much says explicitly that. “Immanent” means the same thing as inherent, and “teleology” is really just “intentionality”, which is even broader than final cause. Also, if wikipedia is fallible then so is Feser.
 
I am not saying that wikipedia can be trusted as to which views are correct, but I think it can be trusted regarding what a label means.

Talk about hypocrisy. You accuse me of flattering myself and then you characterize yourself as stating the truth for the benefit of innocents?

Don’t tell me what I did and didn’t say. Also if I am correct about what Sophism is I am probably a stronger opponent of it than you.

Yes, it does. Dualism is the belief that reality consists of two fundamental kinds of substances, Idealism is the belief in only immaterial substances.

Care to provide some evidence for this?

I did proceed by such. I can support all of my philosophical views through logical argument. And the inherent existence of physicality is not self-evident. Finally, the principle of non-contradiction, while certainly true, is irrelevant.

Yeah, it pretty much says explicitly that. “Immanent” means the same thing as inherent, and “teleology” is really just “intentionality”, which is even broader than final cause. Also, if wikipedia is fallible then so is Feser.
You certainly have exposed yourself. Clear for all to see.
Thank you.

Linus2nd
 
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