P
pablope
Guest
Pardon me Poco…let me clear up your statement…are you asking that after confession, we are to presume we are forgiven?Except the requirements are also fulfilled in sacraments, particularily confession, and having faith in what the CC teaches on forgiveness. Why is it presumption to have faith in what the CC teaches -you must be in state of grace ? Is it too vague ? Just to love can be vague too.
Again, is it presumptuous to know your sins are forgiven and you are back in the state of grace after Confession ?
A Catholic will go to confession because he/she has convicted himself/herself of sin and have a desire to do right by God and ask, in all humility, to be forgive. And when the priest says the absolution, we are not presuming, we are sure we have been forgiven.
Think about this…in Job 42:
7 After the Lord had said these things to Job, he said to Eliphaz the Temanite, “I am angry with you and your two friends, because you have not spoken the truth about me, as my servant Job has. 8 So now take seven bulls and seven rams and go to my servant Job and sacrifice a burnt offering for yourselves. My servant Job will pray for you, and I will accept his prayer and not deal with you according to your folly. You have not spoken the truth about me, as my servant Job has.” 9 So Eliphaz the Temanite, Bildad the Shuhite and Zophar the Naamathite did what the Lord told them; and the Lord accepted Job’s prayer.
Question: Why did God tell or order Eliphaz and his friends to go through Job to be forgiven?
Or here in 2sam 12:
13 Then David said to Nathan, “I have sinned against the Lord.”
Nathan replied, “The Lord has taken away your sin. You are not going to die. 14 But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for[a] the Lord, the son born to you will die.”
Why did God need to send Nathan to David? Why does David say to Nathan he has sinned, and then Nathan pronounces the absolution?
Do you think in this passage, David did not think he was forgiven/