C
chevalier
Guest
And it clearly follows that when a state pronounces divorce, it claims to put an end to a contract between spouses which cannot be ended by themselves or by that authority. There is not necessarily a sin involved for the civil servants if they are bound by the law and can’t choose not to participate in it, but there is no free ground for the civil authority in which it can play with the marriage contract. The only legitimate cause for a civil divorce is protection of children or protection of one’s own rights. Looking for pronouncement of the legal end of marriage is wrong. Claiming to end the contract - even just civilly - is also wrong.
I’m just a lay lawyer from Poland (and as a lawyer I have an obligation to oppose divorce according to the recent Popes), but the Catechism is a binding document from Rome. I cannot see how your statement that a formal legal recognition of the marriage being over, which the state first of all has no authority to enact, is a right and obligation of the state, is consistent with the above. I can very much see how it is inconsistent with it.
The state is not entitled to legislate and judicially pronounce divorce from a sacramental marriage. Catholics are only allowed to pursue divorce (i.e. file the divorce suit) when it is *the only possible way of protecting self or children, *which means *when no other legal (civil, not canonical) means are sufficient. *This means that if separation sufficiently protected one or one’s children, divorce would be excessive and wrong. And certainly *not *required. There is no place for a civil divorce as a formal acknowledgement of the failure of a marriage.
And now a supplementary, less authoritative source, the Catholic Encyclopedia:
I’m just a lay lawyer from Poland (and as a lawyer I have an obligation to oppose divorce according to the recent Popes), but the Catechism is a binding document from Rome. I cannot see how your statement that a formal legal recognition of the marriage being over, which the state first of all has no authority to enact, is a right and obligation of the state, is consistent with the above. I can very much see how it is inconsistent with it.
The state is not entitled to legislate and judicially pronounce divorce from a sacramental marriage. Catholics are only allowed to pursue divorce (i.e. file the divorce suit) when it is *the only possible way of protecting self or children, *which means *when no other legal (civil, not canonical) means are sufficient. *This means that if separation sufficiently protected one or one’s children, divorce would be excessive and wrong. And certainly *not *required. There is no place for a civil divorce as a formal acknowledgement of the failure of a marriage.
And now a supplementary, less authoritative source, the Catholic Encyclopedia:
(to be continued below)By private authority, i.e., without previous application to an ecclesiastical court, and its decision, a temporary separation may take place when delay would bring danger. The church law does not allow a separation in other cases (Wernz, “Jus Decret.”, IV, n. 713; St. Alphonsus, “Theol. mor.”, VI, n. 971), although, where there are evident and public reasons for separation, the non-observance of the Church’s regulations can more easily be overlooked. Separation because of the mere decision of a civil judge is never allowed to Catholics. (Cf. III Conc. plen. Baltim., tit. IV, c. ii).