GoodME:
I had a quote thrown at me by someone from R. C. Sproul (whoever that is) that stated the following:
Protestant Faith - Faith = Justification + Works
Catholic Faith - Faith + Works = Justification
Apparently this Sproul guy is a writer and nation-wide. What he is saying is that when a protestant has faith, that leads to justification, and this justification (being born again as a new creation …) is what leads to works. He contends that Catholics believe that in the absence of Faith, works can substitute to lead to justification.
The first thing I did was correct the equation for the Catholic Faith model, which I believe is more accurately reflected by:
Faith X Works = Justification
In other words, as earlier posted, works can serve to amplify a weak Faith, and vice-versa. But note that if either term in the equation is zero, the result (justification) is zero also.
I get lost in this somewhere. For me, any formula that puts works before justification seems to attempt to imply that one somehow merits initial justification by having done something, like gone to a church to get baptized or whatnot. My understanding is that Trent disallows any merit for works or faith before initial justification.
So by works being put before the initial justification, are they talking about your will consenting, but just not as meritorious? I accept that the Holy Spirit disposes us to have our will go along with the gift of faith, so our will is not like a dead thing as if we had none.
But then the formulas above would be trying to say that Catholics think we have a non-dead will that does go along with faith or consents or something to receiving the faith, but that Protestants think we are given faith by force, against our will or against our previous totally dead will? If this is the case, why do the formulas use the word “works” and not “will”?
Or is my confusion because the first (a type of Protestant) formula is for initial justification and that I am not supposed to figure that the second formula is about initial justification?
Here are two Council of Trent things I use as rudders:
“…we are therefore said to be justified gratuitously, because none of those things that precede justification, whether faith or works, merit the grace of justification…”
and also the whole of chapter five in session 6
"It is furthermore declared that in adults the beginning of that justification must proceed from the predisposing grace of God throught Jesus Christ, that is, from His vocation, whereby, without any merits on their part, they are called: that they who by sin had been cut off from God, may be disposed through His quickening and helping grace to convert themselves to their own justification by freely assenting to and cooperating with that grace;, so that, while God touches the heart of man throught the illumination of the Holy Ghost, man himself neither does absolutely nothing while receiving that inspiriation, since he can also reject it, nor yet is he able by his own free will and without the grace of God to move himself to justice in His sight. Hence when it is said in the sacred writings: “Turn ye to me, and I will turn to you”, we are reminded of our liberty; and when we reply: “Convert us, O Lord, to thee, and we shall be converted,” we confess that we need the grace of God.
AAACK, my typing fingers are now broken :crying: no more typing.