Catholics, what do you do with 1 John 5? It contradicts RCC doctrine concerning the assurance of salvation. See for yourself.

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Unanimity is not a requirement for any council doctrinal determination. Were the early councils unanimous on all the doctrines Protestantism (mostly) believes? And if not, will your belief in those doctrines be weakened?

Trent revisited the canon because it had been challenged. That’s the way councils work.
In Randy’s article it said something to the effect that Trent merely formally restated the canon.

That doesn’t appear to be true based on the council fathers struggle with the issue, be it great or small, there was debate.

I didn’t comment either way on whether or not I thought it weakened the argument of your church, just that the article seems to have overstated it’s case.
 
I don’t believe the canon is infallible, nor do I believe the canon I accept has any errors in it. So yes, I would agree with Sproul
So, it’s entirely possible that the canon containing 66 books is incorrect?

And it could be possible that my choice of 73 books is correct?
 
**
I don’t believe the canon is infallible, nor do I believe the canon I accept has any errors in it. So yes, I would agree with Sproul
**

So to translate, you believe the canon is fallible and you believe the canon is error free? I’m tired, so I’m probably missing something.

Sounds a bit like a non-sequitur…:confused:

Definition of fallible: liable to be erroneous 2 : capable of making a mistake <we’re all fallible>

How can the canon be fallible (liable to be erroneous) --but error free; I’m not trying to challenge you; I’m just trying to wrap my head around the premise. 🙂

I would think it makes more sense to say that the books of the bible, canonized by the C.C., were infallibly selected, thanks to the guidance of the Holy Spirit, amongst a bevy of man-made pseudo-books, but might still include inconsequential errors, that don’t affect the deposit of faith. Essentially, the substantive meaning of the doctrine is unaffected.

Perhaps…:confused:
 

So to translate, you believe the canon is fallible and you believe the canon is error free? I’m tired, so I’m probably missing something.
No, you aren’t missing anything.

I believe the canon could have errors but I don’t believe it does. Maybe another way to say it would be that I think the canon is a fallible, but inerrant list.

It seems to me that many if not all of you seem to think without a supposed infallible authority, you would have no idea what was and what wasn’t scripture. Why would someone need an infallible authority to recognize scripture? Is it possible to have certainty without the infallible authority?
 
That is what is so funny about their insistence on Bible Alone. If they were to think a little bit more, they will realize that they are affirming the infallibility of the Church when they accept the Bible.

Exactly!!! If the Bible is the infallible “word of God,” then who ever collected, selected, assembled and eventually codified the canon, did so, infallibly --thanks to the Infallible Holy Spirit, Who was sent, ONLY, to Jesus’ One Church, on Pentecost. If the Holy Bible is indefectible, then Jesus’ One Holy Church is indefectible. I don’t know how anyone can refute such simple logic???
 
No, you aren’t missing anything.

I believe the canon could have errors but I don’t believe it does. Maybe another way to say it would be that I think the canon is a fallible, but inerrant list.

It seems to me that many if not all of you seem to think without a supposed infallible authority, you would have no idea what was and what wasn’t scripture. Why would someone need an infallible authority to recognize scripture? Is it possible to have certainty without the infallible authority?
Ask the Mormons.
 
No, you aren’t missing anything.

I believe the canon could have errors but I don’t believe it does. Maybe another way to say it would be that I think the canon is a fallible, but inerrant list.

It seems to me that many if not all of you seem to think without a supposed infallible authority, you would have no idea what was and what wasn’t scripture. Why would someone need an infallible authority to recognize scripture? Is it possible to have certainty without the infallible authority?
Well, the Mormons have some extra books they would like to add…since you have no infallible means of determining what should or should not be included, I don’t see where you have any basis for objecting to their additions.

Do you?

One more question: 3 John never even mentions the name of Jesus Christ…what is it about that epistle that suggests to you that the book is inspired?
 
Well, the Mormons have some extra books they would like to add…since you have no infallible means of determining what should or should not be included, I don’t see where you have any basis for objecting to their additions.

Do you?
I would say historial evidence eliminates the Mormons claims.
One more question: 3 John never even mentions the name of Jesus Christ…what is it about that epistle that suggests to you that the book is inspired?
Is mentioning Jesus a requirement of canonocity? Of course not.
Do you think I have gone through each and every book of the scriptures and individually decided whether or not each individual book is or isn’t canonical?

Now, I will ask you the same thing I asked the other poster. How did the Jews know Isaiah was inspired?

I’ll add one more question for you. How do you, fallible Randy, know that your church is infallible?
 
Well, the Mormons have some extra books they would like to add…**since you have no infallible means of determining what should or should not be included, I don’t see where you have any basis for objecting to their additions.
**
Do you really believe that with out the infallible guidance of your church you would be unable to make a decision about the book of Mormon?
 
No, you aren’t missing anything.

I believe the canon could have errors but I don’t believe it does. Maybe another way to say it would be that I think the canon is a fallible, but inerrant list.

So, it is fallible, but inerrant! How is that any different?

It seems to me that many if not all of you seem to think without a supposed infallible authority, you would have no idea what was and what wasn’t scripture.

**That certainly seems like a logical supposition! Without a definitive authority, e.g. the Holy Spirit, sent to Jesus’ One Church --and not just in this respect, error can and does rear its ugly head.

Without the authoritative government, the constitution could be interpreted as anyone sees fit; we wouldn’t even have the constitution if not for an authoritative body. **

Why would someone need an infallible authority to recognize scripture?

One word --protestantism! No authority gives way to division. Everyone claims to possess the necessary authority to interpret scripture, and that is no good for everyone.

Is it possible to have certainty without the infallible authority?

**Not in any respect, IMHO! Anarchy to some degree, will always win out. **
 
SemperReformada…

Do you belong to a particular church, if so, which one, or are you a sola scriptura advocate via private interpretation? --I hope you don’t mind me asking? 🙂
 
The RCC says we can’t know that we have eternal life at any point before we die, nor will we actually have eternal life until some time after we die.
First of all, the Catholic Church is not “Roman”. Second, would you be so kind as to post the teaching that you are referring to here?

This passage was written by Catholics, for Catholics, so I think it is pretty obvious that it does not contradict the teaching of the Church.
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  Yet John writes these things about God's testimony that we have eternal life, and he tells us he writes these things so that you may know that you have eternal life.
Scripture gives us many great assurances about our faith. There is much that we can “know” about our eternal life. However, as long as we are on this earth, we know only in part.

We have an unconscious part of ourselves that is not known by our mind, but is known to God. It is this hidden part of the heart that we cannot “know” in completeness.

1 Cor 4:3-5
I do not even judge myself. 4 I am not aware of anything against myself, but I am not thereby acquitted. It is the Lord who judges me. 5 Therefore do not pronounce judgment before the time, before the Lord comes, who will bring to light the things now hidden in darkness and will disclose the purposes of the heart. Then each one will receive commendation from God.

So our “knowing” about our eternal life is limited to what we can consciously be aware of, and does not extend to what is hidden from us.

1 Cor 4:5
5 Therefore do not pronounce judgment before the time, before the Lord comes, who will bring to light the things now hidden in darkness and will disclose the purposes of the heart. Then each one will receive commendation from God.
Remember that RCC doctrine is man’s testimony and 1 John is God’s testimony.
This is false.

The Teaching of the Church (though not “Roman”) comes from Christ, through the Apostles. The infallible word of God committed to them did not disappear when some of it was written down.
Now refer to verse 9 (the one in magenta). “We accept man’s testimony, but God’s testimony is greater because it is the testimony of God, which he has given about his Son.” I would strongly advise against denying God’s testimony so that you can continue affirming man’s testimony.
I strongly advise the same. 👍
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 That doesn't seem very sound. Instead, follow the example of the Bereans. When Paul was with them, they examined the Scriptures every day to see if what he said was true. They were praised for this. If the Bereans were praised for doing this when an apostle was physically present and talking right to them,
Actually, the reason that the Bereans were praised for being noble is for doing the opposite of what you are doing. They received the Apostolic word with joy and eagerness. You have degraded the Apostolic teaching preserved by the Church, calling it the testimony of man.
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 you should definitely submit "apostolic tradition" to the authority of Scripture in the same way. Examine the Scriptures to see if what it says is true.
There are no contradictions between the Scripture and the teaching of the Church. They both come from the same Source.
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It should go without saying that I do not welcome protests about "private interpretation." The contents of 1 John are not the result of private interpretation. Its origin is in a man named John who spoke from God, and you will do well to pay attention to it. Deal with what is found there. That's twice now that I've addressed the issue, so if you truly think I want to make it three, whatever is wrong with you is no small thing.
Actually, I find it a bit cheeky of you to come onto a Catholic Forum and instruct us how we should practice our faith. The purpose of this site is to answer genuine questions about the Catholic faith. We have teachers appointed by Christ to instruct us in our faith.
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 If you plan on posting on this thread, plan on answering that question. If you can't figure out what to do with the passage, don't post. Go away. If you do post, try to stay on topic.
kinda bossy, aren’t ya?
 
Ask the Jews. How did they recognize that Isaiah was scripture w/out an infallible authority?
Jews didn’t have a uniform or infallible canon.

Christ used the Alexandrian canon of the Old Testament and revealed it’s nature as infallible Scripture to the Catholic Church which He founded.
 
I would say historial evidence eliminates the Mormons claims.
How so? They claim that Joseph Smith received this new revelation from God. What makes their scriptures less canonical than ours?
Is mentioning Jesus a requirement of canonocity? Of course not.
No. However, I am asking you to give me your reason for believing that 3 John is theopneustos - “God-breathed” scripture. What suggests to you that it is?
Do you think I have gone through each and every book of the scriptures and individually decided whether or not each individual book is or isn’t canonical?
Non-Catholics have made that very argument in this forum. They “just know” that the 27 books in their NT are inspired and they refuse to admit that the only reason they have those exact books - no more, no less - is because the Catholic Church decided which books were inspired and which were not.

Now, do you accept or deny that the Catholic Church played such a role?

More importantly, if you have not been given direct revelation by the Holy Spirit that each book is truly canonical, then how do you know for certain that your Bible is worth the paper it’s printed on?

I’m not being facetious, and I’m not trying to jerk your chain…this is a serious question.
Now, I will ask you the same thing I asked the other poster. How did the Jews know Isaiah was inspired?
My take is that the Jews accepted the book of Isaiah as scripture because they accepted the Prophet Isaiah as a true prophet. Truthfully, I’ve never spent much time worrying about what the Jews did with regard to their canon prior to the institution of the Church.
I’ll add one more question for you. How do you, fallible Randy, know that your church is infallible?
Because my fallible interpretation of the scriptures suggest to me that this is what Jesus intended. Do you want the scriptures or do you prefer to pick apart my statement first? 😛

Actually, I could take it a little deeper, but I’ll wait to see how you respond to this first.
 
Jews didn’t have a uniform or infallible canon.

Christ used the Alexandrian canon of the Old Testament and revealed it’s nature as infallible Scripture to the Catholic Church which He founded.
1.) So you are saying the Jews had no idea what scripture was?

2.) Please tell me what books were in the Alexandrian canon Jesus used and how you have come to that conclusion.
 
Do you really believe that with out the infallible guidance of your church you would be unable to make a decision about the book of Mormon?
Personally, I think it is by the grace of God that I am Catholic and not Mormon or worse. As a convert from Protestantism, I praise God for calling me into the Church 30 years ago this coming August.

However, for millions of Mormons, the personal decision they made about the Book of Mormon has been wrong, so there is obviously something very seductive about it.
 
Ask the Jews. How did they recognize that Isaiah was scripture w/out an infallible authority?

The prophets were the voice box of God, however they didn’t always listen to the them, hence the constant relapsing and division. **With the exception of the protestant reformation, this relapsing and division has been avoided, and infallible authority via the Holy Spirit is the reason for the C.C.'S SUCCESS… **
 
Because my fallible interpretation of the scriptures suggest to me that this is what Jesus intended. Do you want the scriptures or do you prefer to pick apart my statement first? 😛

Actually, I could take it a little deeper, but I’ll wait to see how you respond to this first.
But wait, how can you possibly know that Mormonism isn’t true? It seems like you think Mormonisms claims are equally valid to Christianity’s and since you are fallible, how can you have any idea what is the correct decision w/ regards to the LDS church?

It seems that you have pushed the need for infallibility a little far so i am curious to see how you answer.
 
1.) So you are saying the Jews had no idea what scripture was?
No, I’m not saying that.
2.) Please tell me what books were in the Alexandrian canon Jesus used and how you have come to that conclusion.
Genesis
Exodus
Leviticus
Numbers
Deuteronomy
Joshua
Judges
Ruth
1 Samuel
2 Samuel
1 Kings
2 Kings
1 Chronicles
2 Chronicles
Ezra
Nehemiah
Tobit
Judith
Esther
1 Maccabees
2 Maccabees
Job
Psalms
Proverbs
Ecclesiastes
Song of Songs
Wisdom
Sirach
Isaiah
Jeremiah
Lamentations
Baruch
Ezekiel
Daniel
Hosea
Joel
Amos
Obadiah
Jonah
Micah
Nahum
Habakkuk
Zephaniah
Haggai
Zechariah
Malachi

It’s part of Sacred Oral Tradition as is the canonicity of the New Testament writings.
 
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