Circular NFP reasoning

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Princess_Abby:
The Church does not teach that we must ALL be “providentialists” because she recognizes that couples DO have reason to avoid pregnancy
So you’re saying that the Church says that unless there is a sufficiently grave (but “grave” is very loosely defined here) reason to put off having children, we should be “providentialists”? Unless one is naturally infertile, I equate “providentialist” with “parent”.

As an aside, I really really hope that “grave” in this usage is not defined the same way “grave” is used when talking about what qualifies as mortal sin! :bigyikes:

I’m not entirely sure I believe the assumption that the vocation of marriage is *identical *to the vocation of parenthood. I really think that people could be called to the former and not the latter, and not for any real visible or clear “grave physical, mental, or emotional” reason.

But I invite you to prove me wrong – it’s been done many times before! 😉

Peace,
javelin
 
Javelin,

The Church does not teach we are to be providentialists (never paying attention to our fertile vs. infertile signs). This is why the Church supports NFP. It isn’t that it’s “natural,” and not “artificial,” it simply does not “contracept.” We aren’t thwarting life because we aren’t participating in any life-giving act if we are choosing to abstain…for a just reason. (Let’s stop using grave and start using “just,” as it is the word Christpher West uses.)

First, CW quotes JPII as saying this: “Contraception is to be judged so profoundly unlawful as never to be, for any reason, justified. To think or say the contrary is equal to maintaining that in human life, situations may arise in which it is lawful to recognize God as God.”

Here is a direct quote from CW: “The Eucharist is the sacramental consummation of the marriage between Christ and the Church. And when we receive the body of our heavenly Bridegroom into our own, just like a bride we conceive new life in us–God’s very own life. As Christ said, “Unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you.” (Jn 6:53) Since the “one flesh” communion of man and wife foreshadowed the Eucharistic communion of Christ and the Church right from the beginning, JPII speaks of marriage as the “primoridial sacrament.” …Of all the ways that God chooses to reveal his life and love in the world…marriage–enacted and consummated by sexual union–is the most fundamental.”

Again, the Church does not expect us to be providentialists. Abstractly, yes, literally, no. We are ALL called to trust in the divine providence of the Lord, but we are not asked in any way to ignore just reasons to avoid pregnancy. I will give you an example. I have two good friends, I will call them Anne and Jack. They are 24. Jack is in law school, Anne is out of college and a graphic designer. They are getting married in a few months. Here are some potentially “just” financial reasons one might think they have for avoiding children during the first months or year or two of marriage:
*Jack is over $150k in debt for law school and undergrad
*Anne is over $15k in debt for undergrad
*Jack has $10k left on his car payment
*Anne has $14k left on her car payment
*Anne has $3k in credit card debt
*Jack has $3k left on their engagement ring payment
*Jack is not working and will not work for 1.5 more years as he finishes law school, then takes the bar exam.
*Anne makes a very modest salaray as a graphic designer
*They will be newly married and it is perfectly reasonable to assume that young newlyweds need time to adjust to married life and living with one another as husband and wife.
*They are paying for the wedding, and will likely continue to go in further debt

cont’d in next post…
 
I did not make any of these figures up, they are very real, as I just had a long conversation with Anne all about it. But they are firmly against guaging the signs of their fertility once married. They believe that the Lord’s providence will sustain them and that, in Anne’s words, “money is only money.” Do I agree with her? Well, to a certain extent…since, after all, in every act of marital love, we must never thwart the possibility of life and instead embrace the possibility. Every time a husband and wife come together during intercourse, they are renewing their sacramental wedding vows and saying, “I do.” But would I exercise my free will to say no during my days of fertility (with the consent of my husband), if I knew I was hundreds of thousands of dollars in debt (not withstanding or including the purchase of a house, of course) and not a clear cut way in which to pay it back for the next couple years? Yes, I would probably decide, along with my husband, that we had serious financial circumstances to iron out before starting a family. But, then again, once could argue that perhaps Anne and Jack aren’t materially ready to get married. That isn’t my business. They have discerned they are ready for both marriage and children, and whatever God chooses to give them, including children.

Could their position change? Yes. Might they have one child, realize the expense and say, hmm…maybe we need to reconsider. We can’t live on credit. Let’s begin reading signs of fertility and carefully considering with our Lord if we are comfortable with intercourse during those days anyway. Or any number of things could happen…emotioally, physically or financially. And maybe they will still NEVER choose to read their fertility. But for the time being, Anne and Jack will take whatever blessings God bestows upon their marriage. Because, children are ONLY and ALWAYS a blessing.

As for your question about being called to both marriage and parenthood equally…I will give you this quote (out of CW). “The fathers of Vatican II declared: ‘By their very nature, the institution of marriage itself and conjugal love are ordained for the procreation and education of children and find in them their ultimate crown.’” WOW. CW continues: “Children are not added on to marriage and conjugal love, but spring from the very heart of the spouses’ mutual self-giving, as it’s fruit and fufilment. Intentional exclusion of children, then, contradict the very nature and purpose of marriage.” So it seems that through marriage, we are also called to parenthood. An example of this can be paralleled in the vocation of religious life: A priest is not just called to be a priest, he is also called to a celibate life. It is a dual call.

Hope these thoughts help!
Abby
 
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javelin:
I’m not entirely sure I believe the assumption that the vocation of marriage is *identical *to the vocation of parenthood. I really think that people could be called to the former and not the latter, and not for any real visible or clear “grave physical, mental, or emotional” reason.
Every marriage ceremony has a consent section. The consent section of your vows, if done according to the rubrics, should have asked something to the effect of “Will you lovingly accept the children God sends you and raise them in the Faith?” to which you should’ve answered “We will”. If I’m not mistaken, and I’m fairly certain I’m not but you’d have to ask a canon lawyer or the AAA forum, not giving consent to this or any of the other things in the consent section would make a marriage invalid so I don’t think the two vocations can be separted.
 
Sorry, it’s not the consent section, it’s the intent section. Same diff on the rest though.
 
ms cilantro:
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The purpose of contraception is to prevent conception. It’s purpose is not to provide information about the woman’s fertility.
May I add that the purpose of contraception is two fold: to prevent conception as you say but also to allow for unlimited, unrestricted access to the marital embrace.

With NFP, as you correctly stated, you have to choose. You can work with God and be aware that if you choose to express your love during a fertile time, it is likely that a child will come into the world. With contraception, God and his control over our ability to create is nowhere in the equation. He is left out, ignored and the gift that He gives us is disrespected and misused.
 
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Princess_Abby:
The Church does not teach we are to be providentialists (never paying attention to our fertile vs. infertile signs).
I don’t see how it doesn’t teach that. That Chruch says that NFP (paying attention to our fertility in regards to when we have sex) is only OK if there is a grave reason for avoiding having children. So, if there is no grave reason, then no NFP, and if there is no NFP, then the couple is acting just like providentialists (not paying attention to fertility signs). Therefore, the Church is saying you must be a providentialist if there is no grave reason to practice NFP.

As far as the consent statement of the marriage vows goes, couples say “I will accept children*…”.* That is far different than saying “I vow to try have children as soon as nature allows (which for many would be almost immediately) unless some grave reason exists for me to wait”.

I want to know where the theology developed that said marriage is first and foremost about having children. What happen to marriage being first and foremost about unconditional love of spouse with the intent of carrying each other to heaven with Chirst’s intercession? That that love can flow over to new life is wonderful, and I am not denying that children are a blessing and can add to the goal of sanctification, but why are they seemingly made a necessity to something that can be beautiful and holy without them?

javelin
 
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javelin:
I want to know where the theology developed that said marriage is first and foremost about having children.
javelin
Genesis 1:
*God created man in his image;
in the divine image he created him;
male and female he created them.

God blessed them, saying to them: “Be fertile and multiply; fill the earth and subdue it…”*

Seems to me that God’s first blessing was in regards to having children. So the “theology” concerning marriage as first and foremost having to do with having children was something that came directly from God in Genesis 1.
 
Hey Javelin,

I hate to be redundant here but this all goes back to God’s Natural Law again. If God designed a couple to be infertile then that, of course, does not go against Natural Law. Of course that marriage can be beautiful and holy without children. Willfull denial of children with no grave reason is when the situation gets tarnished.

As far as when the theology developed that marriage and kids are intertwined…Well, you pointed this out yourself. Genesis 1:28 covers this.

Just a side note. Children are the perfect example of unconditional love in a marriage. Spouses, while we should strive for this, rarely attain perfection in this area. Children, from the earliest moments, love us basically because they are part of us. Love of my spouse is a choice I make. Children don’t do this.

Catholics are not providentialists because we, at least we should, be consulting with God in every marital act. Once again, these consultations could be fleeting because the situation is obvious or could need to take much time. The providentialist has decide that God always want x of them. There is no examining their “marital actions”, nor do they think God would ever ask them to abstain for any reason. God wants us to put some thought into our actions and He wants us to remember Him in all of our actions. I don’t know about you, but I definitely forget this from time to time. This is just another example of imperfect beings called to do the perfect. All we can do is try our hardest.
 
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javelin:
I want to know where the theology developed that said marriage is first and foremost about having children.
From Genesis 1:28 “Increase and multiply and fill the earth.”

You are right to bring in the mutual aspect, but there is an order. From Ott:
The primary purpose of Marriage is the generation and bringing-up of offspring. The secondary purpose is mutual help and the morally regulated satisfaction of the sex urge. (Sent. certa.)
Thus, we can see how legitimate use of the knowledge of NFP does not violate the order. Women are not fertile all the time, so the conditions for the primary purpose are simply not there, and it smoothly moves to the secondary purpose. If I deliberatley mess with natural fertility through drugs, barriers or even NFP with the intent to cut children out of the picture entirely, I am attempting to put the secondary in front of the primary. That is, it is disordered (a word frequently found in the CCC).

Scott
 
I have not read this entire thread, but the first post brought to mind a post I made on another forum.
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AlanFromWichita:

Here’s the part I have a problem with. There are two fact/opinions that seem to contradict each other that are prevalent throughout these teachings, often in the same article.

First, we are told by NFP articles and by the Catechism that “artificial” birth contraceptive methods are immoral because they strive to make procreation impossible. NFP, on the other hand, is “open” to life and therefore is submissive to God’s will, while servings its purpose as family planning by taking advantage of knowledge of the natural fertility cycles.

On the other hand, NFP articles often talk about how NFP methods are “scientifically proven” and how they are statistically more effective than artificial means at preventing pregnancy.

What I want to know is, if NFP is more effective at preventing pregnancy than artificial means, and artificial means are immoral because they strive to make conception impossible and therefore are not open to life, then couldn’t one logically conclude that NFP, being more effective at preventing pregnancy than artificial means, would actually be more immoral? Someone please help me out here.

Please note that I am only talking about methods that prevent conception such as condoms and sterilization, not abortive methods such as IUD and most pills.

Alan
Here is that post…

Look, let me start with a couple of simple points and see if we can have an agreed upon starting point.

1)Left unaltered, a young healthy woman’s cycle will typically have only 5-7 days where sexual relations will result in a pregnancy. Women don’t need a “system” to know when they are fertile. Women have noticed the changes in their bodies, the onset of cervical mucus, for instance, since the dawn of time.

2)Men’s fertility is only dependant upon the proper plumbing and having the proper organs producing sperm, in other words, a young healthy man is always fertile.

Can we agree that these two statements, in simple terms, constitute the “natural order” for the human fertility system?

If we can agree on that basic, and obvious, fact of human existance, let me offer two observations, and ask for direct and clear responses.

A)All modern forms of “contraception” seek to change or alter the above “fertility system”. The “action” of contraception is to effect a change in an otherwise healthy fertility system.

For instance, the Birth Control Pill “shuts off” a woman’s reproductive system by essentially placing in her body hormonal compounds that tell the existing systems - “don’t ovulate, you are already pregnant” (there are other effects for some pills, but let’s stop there for now).

A condom contains the flow of sperm into a rubber container, keeping the emmission from going where it would normally go in usual sexual relations.

B)All modern forms of Natural Family Planning seek to know and understand the human fertility system. The “action” of the process called Natural Family Planning is the gathering of information.

If we cannot set A & B above as the baseline for discussions, then to continue is foolish. Those who practice NFP do not see B equal to A, and the Church does not see B equal to A.

Making the “action” of rendering a fertility system impotent with chemicals, barriers, or surgeries - EQUAL - to the “action” of recording observations of an un-altered fertility system is such a misdirection of real discussion that it is truly a waste of time.

I think there are many valid and compelling issues to discuss with this key teaching of the Church, but to mix up these two processes - which require entirely different behaviours by the corresponding couples! - as the same is just plain wrong. It defies any logical explanation.
 
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johnnyjoe:
Can we agree that these two statements, in simple terms, constitute the “natural order” for the human fertility system?
Dear johnnyjoe,

Close enough for me, with the exception that women noticing signs is in itself a “system.” I see NFP as an extension of that system, rather than a system in itself. I think for all intents and purposes of this discussion that exception is immaterial.
If we can agree on that basic, and obvious, fact of human existance, let me offer two observations, and ask for direct and clear responses.

A)All modern forms of “contraception” seek to change or alter the above “fertility system”. The “action” of contraception is to effect a change in an otherwise healthy fertility system.

A condom contains the flow of sperm into a rubber container, keeping the emmission from going where it would normally go in usual sexual relations.
I disagree that barrier methods alter the fertility system as you’ve described. It does alter the effectiveness of sexual relations at getting the sperm near the egg, as you’ve mentioned, but that has nothing to do with altering the fertility system. It does nothing to render the male less fertile, just reduces the chance that the act itself will result in conception.

As far as keeping the emission from going where it would normally go in “usual” sexual relations (as in the “spilling the seed” argument about condoms and withdrawal method) then one would have to ask how abstinence doesn’t also cause this spilling? Sperm don’t live forever and they have to go somewhere. Therefore, it is no more wrong to use a condom than to take a vow of chastity, according to the “fertility” argument. I know you didn’t say anything about “abstinence” per se, but NFP could possibly have the same result for some men but I’m not enough of an expert to know for sure.
B)All modern forms of Natural Family Planning seek to know and understand the human fertility system. The “action” of the process called Natural Family Planning is the gathering of information.
Perhaps this is true in a strictly technical way. Just like a burglar alarm does nothing to prevent burglars, but only gives information about their possible existence.

In reality, however, those who “practice” NFP are ones who act on that information to either increase or decrease the chance that a particular sexual act will result in conception – kind of like the people with the condoms. These are like people who get up and take alert and/or call police when an alarm goes off (or the police themselves responding to an alarm).
If we cannot set A & B above as the baseline for discussions, then to continue is foolish. Those who practice NFP do not see B equal to A, and the Church does not see B equal to A.
I appreciate your approach in breaking this discussion down into steps, because it really wasn’t going anywhere. As you can see, I cannot accept A because I don’t see how it changes fertility any more than abstinence does, unless you want to include abstinence in A. I cannot accept B because I don’t believe those couples practicing NFP are simply gathering information. If you contend B as fact, then perhaps I should call this thread “Circular reasoning on using NFP information to plan a family.”

I’d be happy to continue the discussion in terms of why I should accept A & B, or if you want to offer an altered version.

Alan
 
Alan,

You’re stretching to hold to a ridiculous argument to which answers have been provided ten fold.

If we followed your line of reasoning then we would be sinning everytime we had sex and didn’t conceive since this would be “spilling seed”. I fail to find one place in the bible where anyone was punished for having sex in a time when a woman wasn’t fertile or for avoiding sex when a woman was fertile.

There are two things to consider here that count in the morality of the marital act. #1 Reason and #2 Method.

#1 - We are only to try and avoid pregnancy for grave reasons.

#2- We are only allowed to use a method which does not go against God’s design for the marital act. ABC violates this. ABC works against a woman’s fertility. NFP uses a woman’s fertility. It does not deny a woman’s fertility nor does it try and alter a woman’s fertility which both go against Natural Law as God designed it. Sure we can abuse all things natural too - anything from food to abstinence. This is why it can only be used in light of Church teachings.
 
Has anyone noticed how Alan chooses to respond to posts that he thinks he can pick apart with his logic and ignores the others. It is my premise that he doesn’t want an answer, but he wants to argue. He did this with me in a previous post and then disappeared instead of finishing the discussion.
 
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Princess_Abby:
The Church does not teach we are to be providentialists (never paying attention to our fertile vs. infertile signs). This is why the Church supports NFP.
If therefore there are well-grounded reasons for spacing births, arising from the physical or psychological condition of husband or wife, or from external circumstances, the Church teaches that married people may then take advantage of the natural cycles immanent in the reproductive system and engage in marital intercourse only during those times that are infertile, thus controlling birth in a way which does not in the least offend the moral principles which we have just explained. Humanae Vitae #16

vatican.va/holy_father/paul_vi/encyclicals/documents/hf_p-vi_enc_25071968_humanae-vitae_en.html

If in ‘we’ you mean everyone you are mistaken. Because the document even says “if therefore there are well-grounded reasons …” I am pretty sure that most people don’t have these well-grounded reasons. It is meant to be a tool to plan a family if there be physical or psychological or even financial dilemas (see Humanae Vitae for more info). Not everyone fits into this and thus not everyone should be using NFP.

jegow
 
I’m not going to categorize Alan’s intentions one way or another, but I think he definitely seems to enjoy debate (even more than I do!).

I am very interested in hearing how he would respond to my previous post (#69), as we both seem to think alike.

I *do *agree with Alan andthink that the argument that “ABC is wrong because it alters the natural fertility system” breaks down logically when barrier methods are considered. While a stretch, it seems analogous to this: “humans weren’t naturally designed to wear clothes. Clothes block the natural view of certain sexual organs and bodily odors natural to humans. Even the Bible says that only sin made us wear clothes in the first place. Thus, wearing clothes is immoral because it is against the natural order and is a result of sin.” Isn’t a condom just a piece of clothing for a male?

And as far as “spilling seed” goes, if that event is so evil, are men sinning every time they have an involuntary dream that results in ejaculation?

I do not, however, believe the “it alters the natural fertility system” argument to be at the heart of the matter. It is a good argument against sterilization, however, and so shouldn’t be entirely dismissed. I really believe that the heart of the morality lies with the points I outlined in post #69 above.

As for the marriage=children side of the discussion, no one has exactly addressed my concerns, although many have offeren anecdotal evidence. So let me ask a slightly different way:

Other than the line from Genesis (“Be fertile and multiply”), since that single line could easily be applied to the sum of the human race rather than each member, what evidence is there that God intends every naturally fertile married person to have children?

Simply saying “because you are fertile” does not seem good enough to me. God made me capable of running, but does that mean He is calling me to a vocation centered on running? If the real reason we should have children is to better understand God’s unconditional love, then why any need to have more than one or two children? Can “grave reasons” for avoiding having children really come and go such that “we should be consulting with God in every marital act.” (bear06) so we’re not being providentialists? Does “grave reason” really mean “any reason, as long as we’re trying to follow God’s will for our marriage”? Then why use the same term (grave) when talking about mortal sin? That still seems strange to me.

I’m trying to better understand this so I can defend it if it is really true. I know, for instance, that if my wife got word of the “NFP only for grave reasons” thing, she would immediately equate that to “the Church thinks women are just baby-making machines” and it would most likely push her out of the Church completely. Bluntly put, she believes (and rightly so) that her dignity and what she can contribute to the Body of Christ is more than just what her genitals can produce, and she sees the Church (wrongly so, but not to her) as promulgating that flawed concept.

She really has a heart for God, though, make no mistake about it.

Peace,
javelin
 
Ah, jegow and I seem to be on the same page in at least one area. We say:

When not having a reason to use NFP, we are, essentially, to be providentialists.

Princess_Abby and bear06 seem to infer that not using NFP is not the same as being a providentialist.

While I know that being a providentisalist involves a certain lifelong mindset that precludes ever using NFP, my argument is that in practice, an NFP couple in a period of life without grave reason to abstain should, in sexual practice, look exactly the same as a providentialist couple.

I am not trying to put words in anyone’s mouth, just trying to clarify understanding of positions in the discussion. Please correct me if I am wrong.

javelin
 
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javelin:
Ah, jegow and I seem to be on the same page in at least one area. We say:

When not having a reason to use NFP, we are, essentially, to be providentialists.

Princess_Abby and bear06 seem to infer that not using NFP is not the same as being a providentialist.

While I know that being a providentisalist involves a certain lifelong mindset that precludes ever using NFP, my argument is that in practice, an NFP couple in a period of life without grave reason to abstain should, in sexual practice, look exactly the same as a providentialist couple.

I am not trying to put words in anyone’s mouth, just trying to clarify understanding of positions in the discussion. Please correct me if I am wrong.

javelin
How could anybody argue with you? This is exactly the position taken by Kimberly Hahn when she and Scott “threw out the birth control” – long before they came into the Church. The hitch is that most of us have not achieved the level of sanctity that would allow us to be complete providentialists, and so we avail ourselves of the “back side” of NFP. Using it to avoid pregnancy is definitely the “secondary effect” which, although allowed is not encouraged. Browse the Internet for articles on this by Frederick W. Marks III in Homiletic and Pastoral Review.
 
Hi Javelin,
The only reason I am still participating in this discussion is because I detect that you sincerely want to know the truth as the Church teaches it, as well as the “why” behind it, and am therefore choosing to spend some time helping clarify to the best of my ablity.

As for how you and jegow are interpreting the Human Vitae paragraph he referenced, I’m not sure I understand your point. It says…paraphrased, “IF there are just reasons to avoid pregnancy, such as emotional, physical or financial issues, then use NFP to guage your fertility and abstain when fertile.” That means, if there are NOT just reasons to avoid, do not have the intention of specifically avoiding a pregnancy during a wife’s fertile period. That is precisely what I have been saying all along, so what is the problem? If jegow is only pointing out that the majority of Catholics don’t follow that teaching…well, okay. But that does that make the majority right over the minority? No.

I would also be disappointed for us to be caught up in semantics. Call it what you will, the Church teaches that marriage’s primary purpose is the procreation and education of children. All the other benefits of marriage are secondary. Because God designed a woman to be fertile only part of the time, there are days within a woman’s cycle when the secondary purposes come to the forefront. We are, however, asked to discern whether or not it is God’s will for each of our marriages to abstain or avoid during fertile time each and every month. If we have just reason to avoid, then doing so is considered perfectly right with God. If we don’t have any reason (emotionally, physically or financially), then we are called by the Church to give our fertility to the will of God, and He will decide whether or not to bless our marriages with a pregnancy. As bear06 has said again and again, we are continually expected to include God in our marriage, sex being perhaps the most important part for inclusion since we RE-EXPERIENCE our vows and the sacrament of matrimony through intercourse. Each time we come together with our spouse, we should be discerning God’s will for our lives: with this act, are we open to the possiblity of a child? Am I loving my spouse and not using him or her for my own pleasure? God, do you desire to bless us with another child? Do we have just reason to avoid, or are we able to welcome another soul? Only 25% of perfectly healthy couples participating in coitus during a woman’s fertile time without any ABC will actually conceive anyway. We do not control everything, try as we may!!! Our lives are left to the providence of God.

My husband has a copy of Vatican II’s documents, and within that are several quotes pertaining to marriage and family. Do you want some of those? I believe I have already given you one. Since you were concerned about the theology behind all this…though I think it’s been adequately covered, sometimes the direct wisdom from our Church magisterium can be helpful.

I know this is a process, but whatever you need to truly and better understand the Church’s teaching, please just be straightforward about it. I don’t think it’s productive to just go in circles, and I’m not referencing you, but perhaps other people in this thread. I have no interest in being “right,” I only want you to hopefully embrace the Church’s teaching and be at peace.

As I have said again and again, all of you who have NOT read any of Christopher West’s books or any of JPII’s works on Theology of the Body really should. JPII has contributed to over 2/3 of the Church’s writings on marriage and family, yet his works are widely unknown to many Catholics.

Abby
 
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