T
tru_dvotion
Guest
The thing is, nobody can (or rather, should) offer generalizations such as this to reject something which may come from God. In realising this, we can objectively examine the case and be open to it with discernment and prudence.
Yes, I believe that the Catholic Church is the one true Church. I However, I do not believe that God is limited to the visible confines of the Church. The Holy Spirit still directs the Church, and ensures that she will not teach universal errors (ie. to be taught to the whole Church, in matters of faith and morals, when the Pope speaks ex-cathedra). However, this does not limit the Holy Spirit from bestowing his other gifts, which are many: 1 Cor. 12:4 - “Now there are varieties of gifts, but the same Spirit”.
It does, but not routinely, as charismatics would have you believe. No, the Spirit will blow where he wants, and not at all when or where we commend him to.
Again, I would suggest that it is not whether or not the Holy Spirit can act among Protestant Christians, who the Catholic Church recognises as being our brethren, but the Catholic pride, of being the elder brother who never left home in the first place, which refuses to acknowledge the Prodigal, who is clearly welcomed by Our Father who runs to greet him, even outside the House.
Well of course, but just think for a minute, the Father runs outside to take the prodigal son into His house. The prodigal son is already! on his way to the Father’s house. The Father does not go down to the foreign land and does not enter the sty where the prodigal son has been residing. If we use your analogy… then the Catholic clergy and religious went down to the sty to get anointed by the prodigal son. See how ludicrous this analogy is?
If the Holy See has approved it and given it its blessing, I do not see what the problem is.
Show me how and where the Holy Father approved this movement, its teachings and practices. You cannot, because this simply does not exist. What the Holy Father said did not relate to the Charismatic Movement as you have been led to believe.
Would the Holy Spirit be a part to error? Would he really conceal or deny to the one true Church for 2000 years something which, “should have been a normative experience” for all baptized Christians?
Who said it should have been a normative experience? I do not see it ANYWHERE, in any credible Catholic source, in Catholic Dogma or in Canon Law or in anything the Holy Father ever said that speaking in tongues should have been a normative experience! Show me where do you get this idea, that it should have been a normative experience?
Yes, I believe that the Catholic Church is the one true Church. I However, I do not believe that God is limited to the visible confines of the Church. The Holy Spirit still directs the Church, and ensures that she will not teach universal errors (ie. to be taught to the whole Church, in matters of faith and morals, when the Pope speaks ex-cathedra). However, this does not limit the Holy Spirit from bestowing his other gifts, which are many: 1 Cor. 12:4 - “Now there are varieties of gifts, but the same Spirit”.
It does, but not routinely, as charismatics would have you believe. No, the Spirit will blow where he wants, and not at all when or where we commend him to.
Again, I would suggest that it is not whether or not the Holy Spirit can act among Protestant Christians, who the Catholic Church recognises as being our brethren, but the Catholic pride, of being the elder brother who never left home in the first place, which refuses to acknowledge the Prodigal, who is clearly welcomed by Our Father who runs to greet him, even outside the House.
Well of course, but just think for a minute, the Father runs outside to take the prodigal son into His house. The prodigal son is already! on his way to the Father’s house. The Father does not go down to the foreign land and does not enter the sty where the prodigal son has been residing. If we use your analogy… then the Catholic clergy and religious went down to the sty to get anointed by the prodigal son. See how ludicrous this analogy is?
If the Holy See has approved it and given it its blessing, I do not see what the problem is.
Show me how and where the Holy Father approved this movement, its teachings and practices. You cannot, because this simply does not exist. What the Holy Father said did not relate to the Charismatic Movement as you have been led to believe.
Would the Holy Spirit be a part to error? Would he really conceal or deny to the one true Church for 2000 years something which, “should have been a normative experience” for all baptized Christians?
Who said it should have been a normative experience? I do not see it ANYWHERE, in any credible Catholic source, in Catholic Dogma or in Canon Law or in anything the Holy Father ever said that speaking in tongues should have been a normative experience! Show me where do you get this idea, that it should have been a normative experience?