I’m not sure where you’re getting that definition from:
The Pauline Privilege is covered under Canon 1143:
Can. 1143 §1. A marriage entered into by two non-baptized persons is dissolved by means of the pauline privilege in favor of the faith of the party who has received baptism by the very fact that a new marriage is contracted by the same party, provided that the non-baptized party departs.
§2. The non-baptized party is considered to depart if he or she does not wish to cohabit with the baptized party or to cohabit peacefully without afront to the Creator unless the baptized party, after baptism was received, has given the other a just cause for departing.
It is not possible to dissolve a marriage between baptized persons. The privileged is only enacted in cases where both parties were married unbaptized, one is baptized, and the other is vehemently opposed to the faith and refuses to even live with the believer. This page discusses it in more detail:
http://canonlawmadeeasy.com/2013/04/04/what-is-the-pauline-privilege/
As I said above, I don’t know enough to address this on a theological level, however, I do know that the strict restrictions and requirements stands in stark contrast to the Orthodox views on divorce and remarriage, which is fairly open ended, at least for the first divorce.
You also have to consider the cultural context when this was written. In this era, the Pagans had an incredibly warped and malformed understanding of the nature of marriage, so much so that it
could be said that they were not capable of forming a valid natural marriage. You might argue that the same could be said for certain parts of society today, but that is not something you can take for granted given the Christian origins of modern culture (as well as their influence on other non-Christian cultures).
I have to head out for the day, so I won’t be able to respond again. It’s been fun having this discussion with you, and has forced me to look into a topic I was previously mostly unfamiliar with. God bless!