Just a few questions that have already been asked and ignored --to ALL non-Catholics…
If Jesus Christ is our one and only intercessor/mediator… why do we as priests, of the royal priesthood intercede and mediate, as we do here at CAF?
{the only difference is: catholics, as per the Holy Bible defer to Jesus’ One Holy Church for guidance and counsel, and protestants, ignoring what the Holy Bible says vis-a-vis private interpretation, defer to their One Holy Bible for guidance and counsel given to them by the One Holy C.C. which, as the bride of Christ, is being guided by the Holy Spirit in perpetuity, as per Sacred Scripture…}
…why do pastors and ministers/teachers in the myriad protestant churches, all isolated from one another, intercede/mediate for their flock?

Based on Jesus’ singular role as Intercessor/Mediator, which is the traditional protestant interpretation of the book of Hebrews, shouldn’t we as priests…shouldn’t all pastors, ministers and teachers stop mediating and take it to our One and only Mediator? How does one take it to Jesus Christ as our one and only Mediator/Teacher, if He doesn’t visibly teach or mediate on this earth. as He did 2000 years ago? I thought He empowered men to mediate/teach in His stead? Acts 1; Matthew 28:20…If the presbyters and bishops of the C.C. are not allowed to intercede/mediate/teach, as they have been doing since Pentecost, then surely no one outside the C.C. is allowed to mediate and teach --Am I wrong???
If you say: our pastors/teachers don’t act as a conduit for the Holy Spirit to re-present Christ’s Body in the form of bread and wine, as per the words of Institution by our one and only Savior, as per the Holy Bible, then lets assume for the moment that the Holy Bible is errant; Jesus is still are one and only mediator/intercessor; why do the teachers of protestant churches act as intercessors/mediators by preaching the “word” from their pulpits? Is this not an act of mediation/intercession, which is to be done by Jesus alone, as per protestant belief?


I’ll ask again; if you were present at the last supper with the Apostles, would you believe Jesus when He did and said the following:
Matt. 26:26-28; Mark. 14:22,24; Luke 22;19-20; 1 Cor. 11:24-25 - “And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, ‘Take, eat; this is My body.’ And He took the cup, and gave thanks and gave it to them, saying, 'Drink ye all of it; for this is My blood of the New Testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.” Jesus said: this is my body, which will be given for you; do this in memory of me.
What are Jesus’ chosen ministers, starting with His Apostles suppose to do in perpetuity??? Jesus does not say, this is a symbol of my body and blood; the Greek phrase is “Touto estin to soma mou.” This phraseology means “this is actually” or “this is really” my body and blood.
1 Cor. 11:24 - the same translation is used by Paul - “touto mou estin to soma.” The statement is “this is really” my body and blood. Nowhere in Scripture does God ever declare something without making it so, does He?
Matt. 26:26; Mark. 14:22; Luke 22:19 - to deny the 2,000 year-old Catholic understanding of the Eucharist, Protestants must argue that Jesus was really saying “this represents (not is) my body and blood.” However, Aramaic, the language that Jesus spoke, had over 30 words for “represent,” but Jesus did not use any of them. He used the Aramaic word for “estin” which means “is.”
Does this trouble you at all, as it did me, as a former Lutheran???
Jesus, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and Paul, took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, ‘Take, eat; this is My body…’
Jesus, according to John --said:
"Amen, amen, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you do not have life within you.
Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him on the last day.
For my flesh is true food, and my blood is true drink.
Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood remains in me and I in him.
How can anyone say: there is no correlation between the last supper and John 6??? How can anyone say: Jesus was speaking in metaphor or symbolically, considering the fact that He didn’t say: I Am speaking in metaphor… I Am speaking symbolically???
Remember, to the grumblers, symbolically eating and drinking Jesus’ flesh and blood would have been just as ghastly and offensive to them, as opposed to: I am the door, I Am the vine, or I Am the light of the world, which is clearly metaphorical language that was not offensive to the grumblers sensibilities; that is the very reason why they didn’t walk away from this teaching!!! Are we in agreement???