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How is it you know that Jesus is speaking figuratively in this verse but you cannot understand that Jesus is speaking figuratively in John 6:53 even after Jesus says, “the flesh profits nothing. The words that I speak to you are spirit and they are life.”
BereanRuss;5071974:
- How can Jesus promise me figurative “water” that is, “water springing up into eternal life.” But then contradict Himself and say that I must eat a wafer transubstantiated by the priest?
Living water is a metaphor for the Spirit. It is the Spirit that transforms the Bread and Wine into His Body and Blood. This is the Source and Summit of the “living water”. Being obedient to Christ’s commandments is not a contradiction, unless you are one who says He believes, and yet does not obey.
- How can I be guaranteed eternal life by drinking this water but then have the eternal life that was guaranteed by Jesus himself be taken away because I failed to get communion from the priest?
We fail to attain eternal life when we are disobedient and turn our backs on God. Those who do not participate in the Eucharist do not do so because their life is not right with God. It is not being right with God that results in the failure to attain eternal life.
- How does a person “eat” this bread? “…whoever comes to me will never hunger, and whoever believes in me will never thirst”
The same way the Passover was “eaten”!
Jesus is equating “believing” to “EATING”. He is equating “coming to Me” to “not hungering” and “not thirsting”. He is speaking figuratively, not literally! He is using NATURAL things (bread, hunger, thirst) to teach SPIRITUAL truths! He does it all of the time!
I will agree that there is definitely a spiritual aspect to His words. However, He also gives us His flesh to eat,a nd His blood to drink.
Then Jesus said to them, “Take heed and beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and the Sadducees.” [Mat 16:6]
How is it you do not understand that I did not speak to you concerning bread?–but to beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and Sadducees." [Mat 16:11]
Are you trying to apply this verse to the occasion when Jesus had bread in His hand, and said “take and eat”?
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8) Why don’t you take Jesus literally when He says, “If anyone desires to come after Me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow Me.”? Do you have your cross with you today?
We understand that this is, in our day and time, largely a metaphor for our sufferings. However, in His day, many Christians were crucified literally, or fed to the lions, had boiling oil poured upon them, etc. One who is a true disciple will not shrink back from suffering and death for Him.
In vs 66, as a result of this, many (of) his disciples returned to their former way of life and no longer accompanied him. WHY???
It seems clear that it is for the same reason that you do not follow this teaching. It is a hard teaching, and you don’t understand how He can give you His flesh to eat.
All these things Jesus spoke to the multitude in parables; and without a parable He did not speak to them… [Mat 13:34]
- If Jesus never spoke to the people without a parable, how are His words in John 6:53 literal seeing that He was speaking to the people? Does the Bible contradict itself?
The disciples did not understand it either. They did not “get it” until they were in the Cenacle.
- How can you be following the Apostles if they never established a priesthood. If you are trusting in an earthly priesthood, you are not following the Apostles for they never established one.
I am sure that God could set things up any way He wished. He chose to establish a priesthood. Each of the Apostles committed what had been given to them to faithful men, who were able to teach others also. In this way, the Church grew and spread.
- If the priesthood is so essential to the Christian faith, why is it missing from the NT?
I answered this in my post above. You are just not looking in the right place.
- If the priesthood is essential to Christianity and the Bible never established another earthly priesthood, how is the man of God made “complete” and “thoroughly equipped” without a priesthood in the following verse?
All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.
This is a good point. All these activities belong to people, not the Book, Holy as it is. It is people that teach, reprove, correct and instruct. Scripture is useful in these activities, but it was to people that Jesus commissioned the work. He did not write a book. That came later, to supplement the teachings.
No. A priest stands BETWEEN man and God. I stand shoulder to shoulder with all other believers at the foot of the cross. All believers have the same access to the High Priest by faith and we are all told to, “come boldly” to Him.
Jesus gives different access to different folks.
- Why do you insist that forgiveness is connected to an earthly priesthood when the first Pope taught that it is connected to the message of the Gospel, not to confessing to an earthy priest?
I think you are missing apples and oranges. The sacrament of reconciliation applies to post baptismal sins.
You have a lot of good questions, Berean. I trust this will provide benefit to the lurkers, even if it does not to you.