At the start of that second paragraph you say there’s a general rule, since otherwise people would never be innocent or guilty. By the end of the paragraph you say the rule does not apply.
Leaving aside how any circumstance could possibly be abnormal to an omniscient god, and leaving aside what this rule states and where it states it, it may be worth pointing out that in standard theology, excepting only logical impossibilities, God is omnipotent and so not bound by rules.
You forgot to answer post #289.
I asked, does the Church teach that God doesn’t practice what he preaches? As in your “divine omniscience which enables the Creator to decide who will benefit society and themselves the most from being cured” (post #198). Deciding whether to cure someone based on whether it will benefit society is the exact opposite of Christian morality.
I asked, does the Church teach that God doesn’t practice what he preaches? As in your “It would certainly be reckless for God to heal everyone” (ibid). Nowhere does Christ say it is reckless for everyone to be healthy.
I asked, does the Church teach that God doesn’t practice what he preaches? As in your “He knows it is better for us to have free will - without which we would be incapable of love - than prevent evil” (#238). It wasn’t better for that girl. Her free will was stolen from her by evil. Six million times over.
We’ve probably spent enough time on the inconsistencies in your labyrinthine personal theology now, and it might be good to let the thread get back to standard theology.

Then send your comment to the Catholic Dictionary, and all the others, asking them to change their definitions.