I’m not usually the type to pile on when somebody is already engaged in a debate, but I think this particular quote deserves an answer.
First, this quote is USUALLY only used to disprove the Mary ever virgin doctrine, not the Pope, but whatever.
The big question is, what is Paul trying to say? Obviously he assumes his readers KNOW what scripture he is referring to (hint, it ain’t in the NT) and understand its full context. Just to save some time, he is referring to Psalm 14
14:1 The fool says in his heart, “There is no God.”
They are corrupt, they do abominable deeds,
there is none who does good.
2 The Lord looks down from heaven on the children of man,
to see if there are any who understand,
who seek after God.
3 They have all turned aside; together they have become corrupt;
there is none who does good,
not even one.
4 Have they no knowledge, all the evildoers
who eat up my people as they eat bread
and do not call upon the Lord?
5 There they are in great terror,
for God is with the generation of the righteous.
6 You would shame the plans of the poor,
but the Lord is his refuge.
7 Oh, that salvation for Israel would come out of Zion!
When the Lord restores the fortunes of his people,
let Jacob rejoice, let Israel be glad.
But wait a minute…what is that in verse 5? Who could be righteous if
NOT EVEN ONE has done good? Perhaps we are looking at two different groups here?
What is your interpretation?
God Bless