Yes, and its important that we apply those principles as we go forward in this discussion.
I agree.
God can do anything he wants, by definition, and no one can thwart it… That’s not the issue here. The issue is understanding what God wants and how he wants it.
So, do you believe God tries to Save everyone?
God is both merciful and just. He will save anyone who asks to be saved but he will also condemn all those that turn away from him.
Where do you find in scripture that anyone can ask to be saved unless God first gives them the faith to do so?
Rom 3:10 As it is written:
“There is
no one righteous, not even one;
11 there is
no one who understands;
there is
no one who seeks God.
12
All have turned away,
they have together become worthless;
Seems scripture says all have turned away and no one seeks Him…
While he wants all men to be saved, he wants men to have free will even more.
I believe men do have “free will” in the sense that they do only those things which they want to do and nothing against their will. However, their will aligns perfectly with God’s Sovereign Will for them.
This is why Calvinism is wrong, because it assume that God would make a man for the sole purpose of condemning him.
I am not very well versed on Calvinism, but anyone who would say that the sole purpose of anyone is to be condemned to Hell would be against the Bible’s teachings. There is certainly more of a purpose for even those who’s final destiny is Hell.
However, the Bible indeed tells us that God formed men for HIS purposes and one of His purposes in creating man was to demonstrate His wrath and make His power known. Therefore He indeed formed “vessels of wrath”.
Rom 9:21 Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel [l]for honorable use and another [m]for common use? 22 [n]What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction?
God gives everyone the chance to enter eternal life.
Absolutely! However, the only way anyone can turn to Him is if He gives them the faith to do so.
Unfortunately all do not take advantage of that.
No one can take advantage without God willing them to do so.
After all, do you believe that EVERYONE goes to heaven?
Of course not.
Of course God is omnipotent. No one debates this, do they?
You’d think not lol.
Catholics are not Calvinists. We don’t believe that men are dead in sin.
I have heard different a few times even on this board. This is something you’ll need to clear up.
However I would hope you do believe men are dead in sins. There are several scriptures that say so.
We do believe that all men are born with original sin (with the exception of Mary and of course, Jesus), but that doesn’t preclude man from accepting God’s grace. After all, we know from Genesis that man was made in the image and likeness of God and that everything God made was good.
I think you are confused here and I would hope your Catholic brethren would chime in. The fall changed things drastically.
None of these passages says that future sins are forgiven.
Sure it does. In order to discuss you need to tell me why you believe it doesn’t by giving your explanation of the text.
Heb 7:24 but because Jesus lives forever, he has a permanent priesthood. 25 Therefore
he is able to save completely
27 Unlike the other high priests, he does not need to offer sacrifices day after day, first for his own sins, and then for the sins of the people. He sacrificed for their sins once for all when he offered himself.
The Holy Spirit gives us a distinct contrast between Jesus, The High Priest, and the former priests. He tells us that the priests had to continue to give sacrifices day after day to cover the sins that were committed day after day. In contrast we are told that through Jesus’ sacrifice this is no longer necessary. His sacrifice is sufficient to cover all.
If it is not saying this, what do you believe the contrast of the two is getting at? What do you believe is the point of this text?
In fact, it makes no sense for God to condone future sins against him.
No one said He condones any sins. I think you meant forgive before hand though. But honestly, it doesn’t make sense that God would forgive any sins. It is all through His great mercy.
Read Romans 3, it specifically says that grace is for sins previously committed:
21But now* the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, though testified to by the law and the prophets, 22the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction; 23all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God. 24They are justified freely by his grace through the redemption in Christ Jesus, 25whom God set forth as an expiation,* through faith, by his blood, to prove his righteousness because of the forgiveness of sins previously committed, 26through the forbearance of God—to prove his righteousness in the present time, that he might be righteous and justify the one who has faith in Jesus. :
Rom 3 contrast the Old Covenant with the New Covenant, Law through works with Grace through faith. In doing so it makes reference to sins committed before Christ’s Sacrifice as the blood of animals never atoned for the sins of the OT saints. Therefore God withheld judgement against those sins. These are the “previous sins” this text refers to.