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Yes, your take is different–and still wrong. You don’t have a lot of the facts about the situation, so here they are.I have a different take on polygamy- I believe that Joseph Smith was commanded to start it up as a way of preserving the saints. The Bible has the same stories where prophets had many wives and even concubines as a way to preserve a people- most notable is Abraham. I believe it was necessary as the Mormons trekked west and reestablished themselves in the West. It seems like everyone in Utah who is a 5th generation Mormon has polygamy in their ancestory. Joseph had to be the one to introduce it because the people accepted him as a prophet. Brigham Young would never have been able to get the support of the people and the saints would not have been preserved.
So I see it as a necessary thing that is no longer needed. It was officially declared illegal as a way for Utah to become a State and I think that was the correct thing to do and it had served its purpose by that time.
That being said the Church is amazingly open about Joseph Smith and his polygamy and I can understand why many people felt/feel he was a fallen prophet.
There’s no indication that there was a need to ‘preserve’ the saints as they headed toward the Utah Territories, especially given the number of immigrants coming from Europe, including some of my wife’s family.
Mormon polygamy is far different from Biblical polygamy, no matter how Smith tried to justify it in D&C 132, likening himself to Abraham.
Brigham Young’s polygamy has nothing to do with his leadership of the church. He was simply the strongest candidate, saying that he’d abdicate when Joseph Smith III was of age, which he never did.
It’s no longer needed? That’s funny because 132:4 clearly states that it is a ‘new and everlasting covenant.’ Since D&C 132 was first published in 1876, that must mean that ‘new and everlasting’ actually means 14 years, right? And if it’s no longer needed, why is it still published in Doctrine and Covenants? The fact is that celestial marriage, at that time, was one part polygamy and one part temple marriage. The church, when suddenly faced with losing polygamy as an official doctrine, was forced to redefine it.
Your assertion that the church renounced it to become a state is wholly untrue; the Federal Government passed a series of legislation to combat polygamy: the Morill Act of 1862, the Edmunds Act of 1882, and finally the Edmund-Tucker Act of 1887. The latter permitted the government to seize church property and imprison polygamous members, which it did aggressively. On nearly the very eve of the goverment seizing the church’s temples, Wilford Woodruff had the convenient revelation that the church would end polygamy.
Why?
It was a matter of survival, a prudent move, and the only one he could make. Even though the public renouncement of polygamy hastened Utah’s statehood in 1896, the church was still practicing it and during the Reed Smoot hearings of 1904, the topic turned to polygamy. The hearings ultimately resulted in prophet Joseph F. Smith being charged and pleading guilty of violating Utah’s anti-polygamy laws, having fathered 11 children in polygamous marriages after the Manifesto of 1890. This is the reason for the Second Manifesto, which essentially ended Mormon polygamy for good.
These are undisputed facts that you can’t whitewash.
Why, then, if God ordered his church to stop being polygamists, was the very head of the church engaged in exactly that? If the rules don’t apply to him, who do they apply to?
The church is open about polygamy? That’s funny because I saw the Larry King Live interview with Gordon B. Hinckley in which he blatantly lied about polygamy. Can you explain the reason he’d do that, please?
