Homosexuality and Natural Law -- A Concern

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Objection: Premise 1 is false.

When sexual reproduction evolved, reproduction was a solved problem biologically. Cells could, and indeed some animals still can, reproduce asexually. Sexual reproduction evolved for some other reason (e.g. avoidance of parasites or a modulation of the rate of evolution.) So while it is true that we rely on our sex organs for reproduction, that is not why we have sex organs in the first place.
And you have another purpose in mind that explains “why we have sex organs in the first place?”

Remember that if you wish to infer a “why” or reason for something you are tacitly implying that you can use evidential data to definitively demonstrate final causation. Based upon what metaphysics do you propose an inference to a final cause?

You do understand that suggesting a “why” or “reason for” implies a teleology of some kind, right?
 
Objection: your argument is based on a testable claim, specifically that homosexual actions lead to unhappiness. Have you tested this claim? Have any religious organizations with sufficient resources to test this claim tested it in a scientifically rigorous manner?

Without actually testing the claim, if you actually conclude #5 you are guilty of asserting the truth of something without actually knowing if it is true.
Well, no, actually.

Prodigal_Son was not merely “asserting the truth of something,” he was demonstrating that a conclusion logically follows from accepted premises. In other words, if the premises are true, the conclusion is not merely asserted but follows inevitably from the premises, because that is the way the logical structure of an argument works.

You cannot refute an argument by claiming it is an assertion, you must show that the premises are not true, the logical structure of the argument is fallacious or the terms being used are ambiguous.

In other words, if evidence supports the testable claim, the conclusion follows. He wasn’t claiming to have evidence that the testable claim has been shown to be true, but, rather, IF the testable claim turns out to be true, the conclusion inevitably will be true, as well.

This is a philosophy forum AND philosophical arguments are what are expected here, right?
 
But I don’t think the notion that all ends are subjective is compatible with any system of ethics, including (as I’ve said) preference utilitarianism.
Lots of people interpret “subjective” differently. In fact, I’m discussing this matter with Charlemagne III in another thread. When I say morality is subjective, I mean that all moral codes assume at least one moral/value as axiomatic. In other words, you cannot derive an “ought” from an “is”, but you can derive it from another “ought”. And since any choice of axioms cannot be justified, by definition, it follows that neither of us can prove the other wrong on some “absolute” basis if we choose different axioms. (A good example of this sort of thing is the various types of geometry. It would be nonsensical to try to argue that Euclidean geometry is right and elliptic geometry is wrong, since they differ due to the choice of axioms.)

For example, I could use utilitarianism to prove that the greatest happiness principle is right and your axioms are wrong, but that would be a circular argument, because the very use of utilitarianism entails assuming that principle over others.
Ah, yes, rule utilitarianism. May I ask you two questions:
(1) Is “stealing is wrong” one of the rules you recommend?
Given your second question, I know where you’re going with this. But to consider the question in its own right, I would say that we need to specify what “stealing” is. Is it stealing to take my friend’s car keys from him so that he can’t drive drunk? Can a person own something if they lack the competence to use it responsibly? If not, then that would suggest an answer to your next question about terrorist threats.
(2) Is it permissible to steal in order to stop a terrorist threat?
If we overlooked the possible event of a terrorist threat in our initial consideration of the rule, we would surely revise it in the face of this new information. If you don’t like complicating a rule, then maybe we could arrange a provisional hierarchy where rules can be bypassed when other rules take precedence (not unlike our legal system). Nothing changes fundamentally, though. All rules are still accountable to the standard set by the greatest happiness principle.
I agree that humans aren’t naturally monogamous. What does that have to do with morality, though?
By itself, being natural proves nothing, and we seem to agree on that much. It is suggestive of something, though. Pleasure is the body’s way of reinforcing biologically desirable behaviors. Since our brains–especially men’s brains–are wired to have a powerful sex drive that encourages promiscuity, that will be a source of pleasure for us, at least on average. Pleasure doesn’t immediately translate to happiness, and we certainly don’t allow ourselves to act on every impulse anyway, but still…it is suggestive that monogamy may not be the best formula for happiness.

Of course, social conditioning has by now complicated the issue of what causes pleasure/happiness greatly, so the point may be moot.
But I’m interested to see how much this behavior declines as the stigma is lifting.
Another possibility is that being born gay diminishes someone’s prospects for happiness right off the bat. If that is indeed the case, then the question becomes whether gay sex exacerbates the problem. But I don’t remember if you agree with the premise that people may be born gay.
Get me that study, and have it prove your point, and I will shut up. You will convince me.
Happiness is notoriously hard to study directly. The obvious method would be to just conduct a survey and ask people to gauge their happiness, but the very act of monitoring one’s own happiness seems to affect it. And even if it didn’t, emotions do not lend themselves well to measurement. Suppose we were both asked to gauge our happiness with 10 being happiest and 1 being most miserable. Maybe we have different ideas of how much 10 should be. To me, 10 might be winning the lottery and to someone else it may be graduating high school or getting married. Those aren’t comparable. Even if 10 were defined beforehand it would still cause problems, because we may not value whatever 10 represents equally.
Why should other people satisfy my preferences, in such a case? :confused:
If I get my way and I still suffer from it, usually one of two things happened: 1) I miscalculated. I did not foresee the consequences of what I wanted. 2) I had multiple preferences that conflicted with each other.

(1) really doesn’t have a solution, and crops up in every moral code. Sometimes we have to make judgment calls and, in the face of incomplete information, we goof. It happens. My proposed adjustment to utilitarianism where we fall back on rules when uncertainty is great would mitigate this, however. (2) is a result of human nature; our preferences are bound to collide given their number and breadth. The solution would be to try to understand yourself as well as possible, something many moral codes advocate. We could make someone else the arbiter of whether or not a given outcome will increase one’s happiness, but usually you are the best judge of what you want.
 
In fact, biology really doesn’t make the claim that life is good. It asserts that biodiversity contributes to the stability of life on Earth, but it doesn’t state that life should exist on Earth. That’s what humans do.
What is interesting about this claim is that you conveniently forget that it is also humans who DO biology.

Isn’t it therefore true that if deciding that life should exist on the Earth is a decidedly human thing to do, then it could also be a decidedly human thing to have the endeavor called “biology” - that humans also DO - make claims about life being good?

It seems arbitrary for you to decide that humans do make claims about life being good, but then decide that biology shouldn’t be about such matters. Why shouldn’t it?
 
Take random surveys about life satisfaction for people who

-Are gay
-Are not gay and have no contact with gay people
-Are not gay and have contact with gay people

Determine if there is any meaningful difference between the groups. If there is no difference, your conclusion will be false.
You assume that a person’s happiness correlates directly with their reported happiness. Why should we believe that?
 
Take random surveys about life satisfaction for people who

-Are gay
-Are not gay and have no contact with gay people
-Are not gay and have contact with gay people

Determine if there is any meaningful difference between the groups. If there is no difference, your conclusion will be false.
Or, if you like, look at Oreoracle’s comment from above:
Happiness is notoriously hard to study directly. The obvious method would be to just conduct a survey and ask people to gauge their happiness, but the very act of monitoring one’s own happiness seems to affect it. And even if it didn’t, emotions do not lend themselves well to measurement. Suppose we were both asked to gauge our happiness with 10 being happiest and 1 being most miserable. Maybe we have different ideas of how much 10 should be. To me, 10 might be winning the lottery and to someone else it may be graduating high school or getting married. Those aren’t comparable. Even if 10 were defined beforehand it would still cause problems, because we may not value whatever 10 represents equally.
 
And you have another purpose in mind that explains “why we have sex organs in the first place?”

Remember that if you wish to infer a “why” or reason for something you are tacitly implying that you can use evidential data to definitively demonstrate final causation. Based upon what metaphysics do you propose an inference to a final cause?

You do understand that suggesting a “why” or “reason for” implies a teleology of some kind, right?
This depends whether sexual organs are there for pleasure or they are there for procreation. For me pleasure go first as the first cause since living a life without pleasure is a eternal torment leading to extinction.
 
Yes, but is it ONLY humans who do?
Alien life might, I don’t know. It’s irrelevant to my point, which is that prescriptive statements are outside the jurisdiction of science.
One means of testing ethical systems is to propose a moral problem and allow the candidate ethical system the opportunity to effectively handle the issue. If the system deals with the problem in such a way that weird or absurd consequences come about, then the proposed system is, to that extent, found wanting or ineffectual.
But this is circular reasoning, since it’s the ethical system in question that decides which outcomes are absurd. If you don’t think so, consider the following ethical system: Don’t do things that bring about “weird or absurd consequences”.

So there you have it. I constructed an ethical system that meets your specifications. Do I get my Nobel Prize for settling morality once and for all? 😛

You see, it’s really the ethical system’s job to define what an “absurd consequence” is.
The difficulty with preference utilitarianism is that there is no resort to other criteria by which to independently evaluate the morality or even a hierarchy of preferences, since it is merely in having and meeting preferences, whatever they may be, that determines moral content.
Preference utilitarianism views some preferences as having more weight than others. I don’t know where you would get the impression that it doesn’t. For example, some preferences are clearly more fundamental than others. Many of my preferences require that my preference for freedom of speech be satisfied as a prerequisite, for example.

I didn’t elaborate on this before because, frankly, it goes without saying. 🤷 Prodigal_Son certainly expressed no confusion about my position in this regard.
Since the moral system has no other principle by which to determine “good” ends other than by whether they “satisfy” whatever desires the agents in the system decide they want satisfied, there can be no ‘in principle’ objection to the manipulation of desires. There would be nothing wrong, according to this system, with changing the desires of moral agents in order to more easily satisfy them and thereby raise the overall level of satisfaction in the moral landscape.
We actually do forms of “preference manipulation” all the time. Children are raised to have realistic expectations of their futures. Most people learn through dating that they need to settle. Some people even subscribe to religions where you are basically coached to overcome impulses that are hard to satisfy. None of this is necessarily evil. In fact, it’s often a good thing.
It would be politically feasible and eminently moral, according to preference utilitarianism to simply round up all the dissatisfied individuals who burden the moral good by their dissatisfaction, surreptitiously tranquilize them, then continually pump these individuals with hallucinogenic drugs to keep them perpetually high.
There are multiple problems with this scenario. For one, I never equated happiness to pleasure. Most preferences people have cannot be satisfied with a high, and the suicide rate of alcoholics attests to this.

Another issue is that utilitarianism considers the net happiness of all sentient beings, so the people who watch in horror as this transpires also impact the calculation of happiness vs. suffering. Some may fear that they are next in line for this treatment, and if that causes them misery, this must be taken into account.

Some criticisms of utilitarianism suggest that we should just kill especially miserable individuals to increase net happiness. Utilitarians have responded with things such as “average utilitarianism” which seeks to increase the happiness of, say, the median human being. But this is unnecessary once we note that even very happy individuals would be displeased with a world in which people are slaughtered for being unhappy.
 
Of course, Paul isn’t condemning gay people. Paul isn’t God, and Paul opposes any human being condemning anyone else. I do to. I don’t think gay people are more guilty of sin than straight people. I just think sodomy – straight or gay – is a sin. (I could list off for you a number of my own sins that are just as bad as sodomy – heck, they’re listed in Romans 1. I’m certainly in no position to judge sinners, but I am in a position to judge sins).

You seem to want to accuse me of being a bigot or some such thing. I don’t understand why you want to do that. 🤷
Now now, don’t get all defensive and coy :D. Paul isn’t condemning you, nor is he condemning gays, nor is he condemning anyone. He’s saying that by condemning others for what we also do, we condemn ourselves.

Put the Letter into context. Rome at this time is still full of idolatry and cults. Some of the members of the Church are Jews (there are many in Rome), others were idolators perhaps only days or weeks before hearing the Letter. Imagine yourself there.

Paul begins by rallying the troops, telling you all that the idolators will bring the wrath of God down on themselves for their wickedness. Then just as you’re all feeling warn and fuzzy about how good you are in comparison, he drops a bit of a bombshell by saying in no uncertain terms that those in the church who continue with their previous habits are no different.

The whole letter is to teach you all, when you have no bible, no CCC, no long tradition, what it truly means to follow Christ.
*There is the curious fact that suicides among gay people haven’t decreased over the past 30-40 years, despite decreases in discrimination.
Nevertheless, I am open to being proven wrong about this. If homosexuality becomes entirely acceptable and the suicides go down significantly, I will reconsider my view.
*
Does the rate differ between celibate and non celibate? If not, or it the celibate rate is higher, then… :whistle:

But I think you can’t tell until being gay is no more remarkable than being left-handed, that’s the only point where you can say discrimination has ended.
But suppose I were to say that being a slanderer or a murderer isn’t wrong. (These things were mentioned specifically in Romans 1!) Clearly they ARE wrong. When I say that they are wrong, I am not judging anyone – for all I know, the murderers are holier than I am, though they are very confused. But the action of murder is wrong. Just so, Paul is saying that the action of same-sex sex is wrong.
Nope. See above. People get all excited because of Paul’s language. Do one of those Catholic meditation things, make believe that up until last week you worshiped Venus or something, read the whole Letter in context.
I don’t oppose gay couples adopting, though I do think that individual charities should be able to choose not to facilitate such adoptions. Ideally, single people would not be allowed to adopt except in special circumstances, but – given our current society – it’s far more merciful to children to allow them to be adopted into single/gay parent homes than to have them languish in foster care.
Agreed, except I think it’s up to society to say on behalf of the children when and how agencies can discriminate.
*If I had been alive when no-fault divorce was put into law, I would have marched. And I have written a philosophical paper of some detail on the subject, which I have attempted to publish to no avail.
So please don’t make presumptions about me. Gay marriage is not my hobby horse. If there is anything I can do to stop divorce – which has done more harm than gay marriage could possibly do – I will do it.*
There you go again :). I was pointing out how opponents could and do use things, but point taken, I’ll be less enthusiastic. I fully agree on divorce, although it’s beyond me what to do about it. Re. your paper, have you tried philpapers.org? Not sure what the publishing conditions are but it has over a million entries online, it’s not peer reviewed or anything and I think most professionals are members.
 
But I think you can’t tell until being gay is no more remarkable than being left-handed, that’s the only point where you can say discrimination has ended.
Sounds like a classic case of circular reasoning.

How do we know when discrimination has stopped?
When gay individuals are no longer suffering negative consequences for being gay.

How do we know discrimination still exists?
When gay individuals still suffer negative consequences for being gay.

Negative consequences = discrimination

Since discrimination simply means “suffering from” being gay, discrimination will always be, by definition, the reason for gays suffering for being gay.
 
Alien life might, I don’t know. It’s irrelevant to my point, which is that prescriptive statements are outside the jurisdiction of science.
Only if science is outside the jurisdiction of morality.

What scientists do or how scientists act on the scientific knowledge they have acquired is dependent upon prescriptive statements being made before scientists can continue to engage in science.

Where we allow ourselves to be led by the scientific knowledge we have, requires a prescription that has been formed by a sequence of prior prescriptive statements regarding the pursuit of scientific knowledge.

That science ought to retain methodological materialism is a prescriptive position held inside the jurisdiction of science.
 
So your understanding is that Paul is claiming that “every kind of wickedness” is fine to commit as long as you don’t go about condemning others for doing these things? Go ahead and sin - no problem there - just don’t condemn others. That is what he considers unpardonable?
😃

No. I’m asking that the Letter is read in the context of the original audience, with their knowledge and worldview in the original setting, asking what is the author’s intention to that audience, what was the author trying to tell them. As opposed to quote mining, etc.
*A more consistent reading of the text and one far more sympathetic to Paul is that he acknowledges that sin lives in him - which he does in several places - and it is that acknowledgement that allows him to recognize sin and condemn sin or evil itself, while showing empathy for those entrapped by it. What he is doing is treating sin as the enemy, while speaking about are those who commit sin but don’t acknowledge that they do as being hypocritical but all the while being empathetic to those who commit sin but don’t realize the gravity of their state and the eternal jeopardy they have put themselves in.
He is by no means NOT condemning sinful behaviour but he is speaking against an attitude that hypocritically condemns persons rather than evil acts.
That in no way excuses sinful behaviour nor should his words be taken to mean he is proposing that it is fine to go on sinning provided you don’t condemn others for the same sin. Clearly, his intention is to place the onus on each moral agent to clean up their own house BEFORE condemning others for keeping a filthy one. That, surely, does not entail being blind to grit and grime but rather means having a discerning eye and vigilant concern for eradicating it, first in one’s own house and then helping others do so in their houses out of concern for their eternal good.
Merely condemning others for sinful behaviour is not showing concern for their ultimate good, which is what Paul is very much on about.*
I think you’re complicated things. In Rom 2:1 Paul is telling them realize that just calling yourself a Christian doesn’t mean you are following Christ, you also have to change your behavior.
Sounds like a classic case of circular reasoning.

How do we know when discrimination has stopped?
When gay individuals are no longer suffering negative consequences for being gay.

How do we know discrimination still exists?
When gay individuals still suffer negative consequences for being gay.

Negative consequences = discrimination

Since discrimination simply means “suffering from” being gay, discrimination will always be, by definition, the reason for gays suffering for being gay.
:confused: You don’t ask people with black skin if discrimination has stopped. You don’t go near the victims of discrimination. You ask people in general is this (racialist) joke funny? Is this stereotype valid? And so on.
 
Preference utilitarianism views some preferences as having more weight than others. I don’t know where you would get the impression that it doesn’t. For example, some preferences are clearly more fundamental than others. Many of my preferences require that my preference for freedom of speech be satisfied as a prerequisite, for example.
You are playing semantic games here by defining a necessary condition as a “preference.” What you are doing is relying upon the moral sensibilities of normal human beings to assert their preference for fundamentals that are not merely preferences but obligatory for morality to function.

If they merely were “preferences” they would be vulnerable to disposal if enough individuals no longer preferred them. There is nothing in preference utilitarianism that requires any preferences to be fundamental because your sole principle is preference. If free speech were no longer a preferred option it would no longer be protected as being desirable or preferred.
We actually do forms of “preference manipulation” all the time. Children are raised to have realistic expectations of their futures. Most people learn through dating that they need to settle. Some people even subscribe to religions where you are basically coached to overcome impulses that are hard to satisfy. None of this is necessarily evil. In fact, it’s often a good thing.

There are multiple problems with this scenario. For one, I never equated happiness to pleasure. Most preferences people have cannot be satisfied with a high, and the suicide rate of alcoholics attests to this.

Another issue is that utilitarianism considers the net happiness of all sentient beings, so the people who watch in horror as this transpires also impact the calculation of happiness vs. suffering. Some may fear that they are next in line for this treatment, and if that causes them misery, this must be taken into account.

Some criticisms of utilitarianism suggest that we should just kill especially miserable individuals to increase net happiness. Utilitarians have responded with things such as “average utilitarianism” which seeks to increase the happiness of, say, the median human being. But this is unnecessary once we note that even very happy individuals would be displeased with a world in which people are slaughtered for being unhappy.
You missed the point here.

There is nothing inherently immoral, according to your preference utilitarianism, with individuals being pleased by the slaughter of unhappy individuals. You admit yourself that preference manipulation happens all the time. It is just that with your brand of utilitarianism there is no inherent moral consideration that could be appealed to to stop a government from undertaking preference manipulation such that unhappy individuals would be conditioned to be pleased by their slaughter and those left behind conditioned to think that their own happiness increased by putting the unhappy out of their misery.

The problem with your ethical system is that it finds traction only because it lives off the vapors of more robust existing ethical systems. Its purchase is parasitic on the existence of better moral systems to form the consciences of individuals who might subscribe to it. Absent those, preference utilitarianism has no means to prevent itself from spinning out of control.

If preferences have been formed by sound moral thinking then preference utilitarianism sounds plausible, on the surface. However, without reference to sound moral thinking, preferences are susceptible to degeneracy with no independent means of measuring that degeneration is occurring. Corrupted moral agents can be coerced in pleasant ways towards preferring a litany of morally questionable goods. Just the fact that they are preferred is a faulty ground upon which to make them “moral” by definition.

This is my main critique of preference utilitarianism. If you make the fact that goods are preferred to be the standard by which they become moral goods, then you have no independent standard by which to gauge whether preferred goods are indeed “good.”

Good becomes defined as that which is preferred by human beings. The question of whether things preferred by human beings OUGHT to be preferred by them becomes moot. That is why any sound moral system worth considering ought to propose or invoke an objective standard by which to assess whether goods are, indeed, good, not merely whether they are currently preferred.
 
Now now, don’t get all defensive and coy :D. Paul isn’t condemning you, nor is he condemning gays, nor is he condemning anyone. He’s saying that by condemning others for what we also do, we condemn ourselves.

Put the Letter into context. Rome at this time is still full of idolatry and cults. Some of the members of the Church are Jews (there are many in Rome), others were idolators perhaps only days or weeks before hearing the Letter. Imagine yourself there.

Paul begins by rallying the troops, telling you all that the idolators will bring the wrath of God down on themselves for their wickedness. Then just as you’re all feeling warn and fuzzy about how good you are in comparison, he drops a bit of a bombshell by saying in no uncertain terms that those in the church who continue with their previous habits are no different.
I’m not sure what we’re arguing about here. You seem to have been saying before that Paul wasn’t censuring homosexual activity. But now you say that “the idolators” (including those having gay sex) are “wicked”. OK, I’m fine with that. And then you say that we’re all wicked, and have no basis to judge other people’s souls. I’m fine with that.

But each **action **in the list of wrong actions in Romans 1 (including same-sex relations) is condemned. It is against the Law. Paul clearly believes that. 🤷
Does the rate differ between celibate and non celibate? If not, or it the celibate rate is higher, then… :whistle:
Well, you tell me. If you can show me that celibate gay folks are more likely to be genuinely unhappy than sexually active gay folks, I’ll shut up.
Re. your paper, have you tried philpapers.org? Not sure what the publishing conditions are but it has over a million entries online, it’s not peer reviewed or anything and I think most professionals are members.
I think philpapers just assembles papers published in other sources. After I’m more established in the field, I might try to publish it again. Most philosophers, though, think criticisms of divorce are complete bunk. Sad, but true.
 
Thank goodness the scriptures spare us the explicitness of modern insenstivity and poor judgment. But scriptures certainly regards unnatural sex acts as something particularly abhorrent. And that between same sex persons seems to be particularly abhorrent. The point is that any sex in which the production of children would not be the expected or desired outcome is to be condemned.
Given that you currently have a thread going about what the nature of things means, I’m not sure how an act can be “unnatural”. Do you mean the world will explode or something? 😃

The procreation rule comes from Thomas. In his opinion it’s a moral good, so he adds it to his catalog of goods in his version of natural law philosophy, cranks the handle and the rules follow from there.

But that doesn’t demonstrate that Thomas is correct to call it a moral good. To do that, you need to show that scripture demands it AND that it is not one of the parts of scripture we routinely ignore, such as the prohibition on eating all kinds of things (Lev 11) or the injunction to put non-celibate gay men to death (Lev 20:13).
Surely you aren’t saying the scriptures condon sex which intends to avoid the production of children, or in which that result would be impossible? That certainly is not something with which the Catholic Church would agee. Thank goodness Catholics have the Church to make those interpretations for us.
Where’s the commandment?

I know the Church doesn’t agree, although looking at polls it seems a lot of Catholics do.
We wouldn’t know whether the child sitting next to us was a lesbian or not. But whether or not she was, she would hear the same scripture. And her catechism instruction would have informed her about the evil of such acts - in an age appropriate manner. Whoever she was, she would have learned that the object in life is love God and to do what is pleasing to him and certain things are displeasing to him and harmful to us.
Telling teenagers that they displease God just by being how God made them can really mess them up for life.

You need a very strong basis before saying such a terrible thing to a minor, and I think you don’t have one. Reading scripture to her out of context before she is old enough to understand for herself is not a strong basis.
 
The problem with your ethical system is that it finds traction only because it lives off the vapors of more robust existing ethical systems. Its purchase is parasitic on the existence of better moral systems to form the consciences of individuals who might subscribe to it. Absent those, preference utilitarianism has no means to prevent itself from spinning out of control.
Hear, hear! 👍

(Your comment reminds me of Nietzsche’s criticism of Mill’s philosophy, by the way. I’ve always felt that Nietzsche never rejected Christianity; he only rejected the shallow and vulgar “bourgeois” versions of Christianity that he came into contact with).
 
😃

No. I’m asking that the Letter is read in the context of the original audience, with their knowledge and worldview in the original setting, asking what is the author’s intention to that audience, what was the author trying to tell them. As opposed to quote mining, etc.

I think you’re complicated things. In Rom 2:1 Paul is telling them realize that just calling yourself a Christian doesn’t mean you are following Christ, you also have to change your behavior.
And that would include the behaviour of those women who “exchanged natural relations for unnatural,” the men who “gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another” and commit “shameless acts with men and receiving in their own persons the due penalty for their error.”

Merely because hypocrites exist who continue to do what they condemn others for does not make “envy, murder, strife, deceit, malignity” right and moral. Individuals who are “gossips, slanderers, haters of God, insolent, haughty, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, foolish, faithless, heartless, ruthless” are not made righteous because hypocrites condemn them.

As Paul says, “Though they know God’s decree that those who do such things deserve to die, they not only do them but approve those who practice them” which appears to be what you are advocating - approving “those who practice them.”
 
You are playing semantic games here by defining a necessary condition as a “preference.” What you are doing is relying upon the moral sensibilities of normal human beings to assert their preference for fundamentals that are not merely preferences but obligatory for morality to function.
The fact that utilitarianism leads us to protect what even other moral codes deem “obligatory for morality” is a testament to its power. Don’t dismiss my argument as a semantics game just because you don’t like it. If I am playing on ambiguities in my writing, call me out on it.
If they merely were “preferences” they would be vulnerable to disposal if enough individuals no longer preferred them.
Well, yes, obviously. Moral codes of any kind are only concerned with what humans care about. If there ever comes a time when human nature fundamentally changes and we value radically different things, moral codes will change to reflect that. One of the advantages of utilitarianism is that it will adapt naturally as preferences change. Other moralities will make ad hoc adjustments over time since they are inflexible to begin with.
There is nothing in preference utilitarianism that requires any preferences to be fundamental because your sole principle is preference. If free speech were no longer a preferred option it would no longer be protected as being desirable or preferred.
Please provide a plausible scenario in which humans would no longer prefer freedom of speech. What you are describing is a pipe dream.
It is just that with your brand of utilitarianism there is no inherent moral consideration that could be appealed to to stop a government from undertaking preference manipulation such that unhappy individuals would be conditioned to be pleased by their slaughter and those left behind conditioned to think that their own happiness increased by putting the unhappy out of their misery.
Another pipe dream. The fact that you have to contrive such outrageous situations to make utilitarianism look bad proves how solid a philosophy it is.

And make no mistake, you can make any moral code look bad by devising a sufficiently nutty thought experiment. Under most versions of Christian morality, for example, human life is sacred and cannot be sacrificed as a means of, say, saving other lives, even under the Principle of Double Effect. Catholicism in particular holds that human embryos are among the lifeforms protected by this tenet. So if a maniacal tyrant threatened to exterminate all life on Earth unless a single embryo was killed, we would be forced to accept our extinction under Catholic morality.
 
Telling teenagers that they displease God just by being how God made them can really mess them up for life.
And telling teenagers that they are free to follow whatever inclination or whim enters their hormone laden brains can also “really mess them up for life.”

I have the perfect blog site for you - it’s called Trigger Warnings
This blog, Trigger Warnings, is a weblog for exquisitely sensitive people; i.e., Proglodytes. Proglodytes, like the most sensitive hothouse orchids, can be irretrievably damaged by a hurtful joke, a harsh comment, a politically disfavored word, or even by simple disagreement. Consider this: a gay Proglodyte Stanford student recently warned that an upcoming “negative event” entitled “Communicating Values: Marriage, Family and the Media” could result in a “statistically significant increase” in suicides.
You see what I mean.
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In other words, if evidence supports the testable claim, the conclusion follows. He wasn’t claiming to have evidence that the testable claim has been shown to be true, but, rather, IF the testable claim turns out to be true, the conclusion inevitably will be true, as well.
Which is why my point was that unless he has a legitimate test of that claim (rather than some assorted anecdotes) he cannot actually conclude his final point.
 
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