I know, I’ll just go back to the Main question like one of our Catholic brothers (Chancellor) here said,
How do Catholics explain 1 Timothy 2:5 and Hebrews 7:26?
I’ve already heard how Catholics reconcile it. And I accept it as their explanation.
And the generalized protestant answer is that Mary’s intercession with Jesus in our behalf is not according to the Scriptures.
In direct terms, Catholics use the words of Popes and other Catholic theologians to add to what the Bible says, and they believe the words of the Pope to be inspired by God, or having the same authority as the Holy Scriptures, which makes his writings Holy.
I really can’t argue against someone who believes the Pope’s doctrine is equal with the doctrines of the Holy Scriptures, or that the Pope’s authority is the same as God’s authority.
All I can see is the falling away in the church that Paul spoke about:
2 Thessalonians 2:2-4 - “… as that the day of Christ is at hand. Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God.”
The only man that I know fills that spot, sitting in the temple of God, acting as if his words are the Word of God, and that people bow down to and kiss his hand/feet, and worship, that is even called Holy Father, and carries the name Vicar of Christ (acting in place of Christ) is The Papacy institution.
For me the Vicar of Christ is the Holy Spirits according to the Scriptures, and He guides his church through His work and the knowledge in the Holy Scriptures.
But I understand, generally speaking, Catholics wont admit they worship the Pope.
However, If you show a person without preconceived ideas what people do in the presence of the Pope (or the “Holy Father” like some call him), that person would call it worship.
You want to believe Marianism, though the Bibles don’t teach that as the way to salvation, I can’t force anyone to not believe that. I can just show evidence.
And I forgot to post it, but Mary lost her virginity a long time ago when the Bible says that Joseph “… knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.” Matthew 1:25.
After she had the baby, then was Joseph able to “knew” her, not before, but till after she had the baby was born. And that “knew” has nothing to do with getting to know Mary as a person, if you know what I mean. Even the word “firstborn” says there are more born. Not her only child. That Jesus brothers and sisters are from Joseph’s previous marriage, is an assumption.
I’ll go to other forums, but it was interesting to speak to you, and thank you for the info on how Catholics reconcile those verses.