M
moondweller
Guest
Those councils decided on a “canon” of Scripture. But the writings were Scripture from the very moment they were penned. They were Scripture regardless of any council. The Jews never had a council to determine their “canon” of Scripture, nonetheless, the Scriptures were well known by that nation. In fact, Jesus Himself constantly appealed to them and opened the minds of the Apostles to understand them (Lk. 24:27; 44-45). Peter, prior to any church council, recognized Paul’s writings as Scripture (2 Pet. 3:16).Councils decided WHAT was Scripture. NOT MADE SCRIPTURE!
You’re implying that 2 Tim. 3:16 is an empty claim? The writing doesn’t itself claim itself to be Scriptural. But Paul, through the Holy Spirit, states in that Holy Writ that ALL Scripture is theopneustos.If a writing claimed it was scriptural, we accept it?
Do you think the Bible is regarded as “Scripture” because those men claimed to be infallible? Men’s teachings are either true or false, not fallible or infallible. Infallible means incapable of erring. No man is infallible (save the Son of Man). Hence, no church: Roman Catholic, Eastern Orthodox or Protestant can claim infallibility. Their leadership and their teachings are all accountable to God and His inerrant Written Word. The way it’s been since Moses. All teaching of men (an angels) must be tested by the Scriptures, as exampled by Christ Himself.What kind of logic is that my friend? I can write a book that claims it is scriptural. Is it acceptable? I think the truth is that you have no grounding to believe that Scripture is in fact SCRIPTURE unless you accept the infallibility of the Catholic Church’s teaching. How can you still fail to see this?