So that fact that we have records of the languages spoken in the Americas dating back to pre-history AND NO FORM OF HEBREW IS FOUND AMONG THEM is not evidence? Written Mayan ideographic script, for instance, dates back to about 250 BC.
It may be evidence for something; but it is not evidence or proof that Reformed Egyptian never existed.
Well there are plenty of historical records of the main forms of written Egyptian (Heiroglyphs, Demotic, Coptic, etc), so we could look at those and compare them to “Reformed Egyptian”, if you had even a shred of evidence that it ever existed. I guess it sure is convenient that according to you no such evidence exists (I’m assuming outside of the famous Golden Plates? Which of course nobody can see…)
We never claim that we can produce evidence that Reformed Egyptian existed—and you “guess” wrong! It is not “inconvenient” for us that we make no such claim either.
We do have scientific methods to determine possible genetic relationships between languages, so if there were anything like Hebrew spoken by acient Americans, we COULD know it, provided that we had even a shred of evidence to look at. In the absence of that, we can look at the languages spoken in the areas under consideration that we DO know about in order to determine what is more likely to be found and what is less likely. Given that there has never been any evidence of any Semitic language indigenous to the Americas, and there is no colloborating evidence for the existence of the people written about in the BoM or their supposed migration pattern, we can say with as much certainty as we have about languages we CAN attest to that “Reformed Egyptian” is hogwash.
You have no evidence that Reformed Egyptian never existed. None of the above proves any such thing. The most you can say is that your scientific investigation provides no evidence that such a thing existed. You cannot jump to the conclusion from that that it never existed.
Don’t get me wrong, I’m not saying unlikely things don’t happen: Malagasy is spoken thousands of miles away from its nearest linguistic relatives, and there are a few isolated pockets of Khoisan languages spoken in eastern Africa, far away from southern Africa, where all other Khoisan languages are found. These facts, however, are explained by historical migrations, which are yet another form of evidence that does not exist for the people described in the BoM.
Maybe not yet; but that is no proof that it never happened or never existed.
Yes, except for everything I listed above that exists at least in some form for languages that aren’t made up, but not at all for “Reformed Egyptian”. You can’t fool me into discarding the principles by which the field of Linguistics operates just because we’re dealing with a language that your holy book was supposedly written in. As a point of comparison, the languages of people spoken of in the Bible HAVE been found and documented (Hittite, Canaanite languages, etc), lest you think I’m just picking on Mormons. As I said earlier, I’d be the first to gleefully welcome Reformed Egyptian into the study of acient languages, if only there was anything to actually base the existence of it on. Linguistics and language is not a matter of faith. I may pray to get through my research, but I don’t appeal to my religious faith to make arguments one way or another about the data I work with (or lack thereof). That’s not science…not even a social science like linguistics!
I don’t need to fool you. You are fooling yourself I am afraid by demanding scientific proof for something that is designed to be accepted by faith, as Paul said: “
Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men; and the weakness of God is stronger than men” (1 Cor. 1:25); and: “
For the wisdom of this world is foolishness with God. For it is written, He taketh the wise in their own craftiness” (1 Cor. 3:19). Here is more:
1 Corinthians 1:
20 Where is the wise? where is the scribe? where is the disputer of this world? hath not God made foolish the wisdom of this world?
21 For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe.
22 For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom:
23 But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness;
24 But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God.
27 But God hath chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God hath chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty;
28 And base things of the world, and things which are despised, hath God chosen, yea, and things which are not, to bring to nought things that are:
29 That no flesh should glory in his presence.
Sorry, faith is not evidence! Faith is actually the belief in something in the absence of evidence. I have FAITH that Jesus Christ resurrected, because I trust and believe in the accounts of those who witnessed His presence among them after the crucifixion (who vastly outnumber the witnesses of Joseph Smith’s “miraculous” translation of the golden plates). Since I have that faith in those accounts and in every word spoken by our Holy Saviour regarding this and everything else in the Bible, any lack of scientific evidence does not bother me in the slightest.
Thank you:
John 20:
29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
I also believe because of the evidences of the witnesses of the Book of Mormon, and of the Holy Ghost, which witnesses to me that it is true.
zerinus