Hi Adrift,
You have asked the following scriptures to be expounded. If you dont mind, I will deal with John 1:1 first as I understand your approach to this scripture has long been a anchor for the teaching of Jesus being God.
**Okay. Then how is the WORD GOD in John 1.1? Why did Thomas call Jesus “My Lord and My God” in John 20.28? Why did Elizabeth, under the influence of the Holy Ghost, call Mary the Mother of the Lord in Luke 1.43? How do you explain away these passages? **
The usual Christadelphian approach to John 1 is to assume that (1) **“beginning” **refers to Gen 1, or earlier, and that (2) “Word” therefore cannot refer literally to Christ, at least at that **“beginning”. **
How do you come to this assumption??? It says that he was with God before ALL things were made and all things were made through him (John 1:3). That means that the Word was not made, otherwise he could not have existed before ALL things were made and ALL things could not have been made through him. How could God make something through something that had not yet been made? And, how do you infer that the Word is not literally Christ when it says that the Word became flesh and dwelt among us as Christ in John 1:14?
skmorrison6;7621927:
Here the Catholic would disagree and state that Jesus was there in the beginning.
Yes, because that is the only logical conclusion.
Much of what follows in the next 17 verses of John 1 is a slightly different approach, which (1) has no problem with the “Word” being a title of Christ, but (2) interprets **“beginning” **in an entirely different way.
BEGINNING: “Archee”; signifying **“first in order”, **from root “arch, archon” = a ruler. Cp v 15. “The beginning”: a characteristic phrase of John, referring to the beginning of the **NEW CREATION in Christ: **consider carefully Joh 15:27; 16:4; 8:25; 6:64; 1Jo 1:1; 2:7,13,14,24; 2Jo 1:6. [You will notice in some of these passages that the KJV translation shows certain words italicized, and that omitting these words actually enhances the sense of the passages.]